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another 1NT (jump overcall) question


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I'm not an expert, but MGoetze's answer is what I would presume. Both minors can be shown starting with 4, natural and forcing. The quantative 4NT perhaps ideally should have a double stop in , but with them being marked, KJx should do. (Edit: actually Kx is probably fine.)
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Isn't it fairly normal to play 4 as a one-suited transfer to spades? 3 is forcing, so with spades and a minor you can bid 3 followed by your minor.

It makes sense but would you really assume it without discussion?

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It makes sense but would you really assume it without discussion?

It would depend on who I was playing with. I think most Americans would assume that Texas still applies, but most English players wouldn't. But I'm not sure why I think that.

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It would depend on who I was playing with. I think most Americans would assume that Texas still applies, but most English players wouldn't. But I'm not sure why I think that.

I'm quite sure we established recently that it's "standard" for Texas to still be on over a 3 overcall, but not over 3 or higher, and I think there were Americans involved.

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It would depend on who I was playing with. I think most Americans would assume that Texas still applies, but most English players wouldn't. But I'm not sure why I think that.

 

Yeah as mgoetze said usually people agree to play texas through 3C only. Obv it should be on over 3H also even if you don't play it over 3D.

 

Anyways I like to play 4H=texas, 4S=minors, 4N=quant.

 

Undiscussed it would depend who I was playing with, but I'd take 4H as texas and 4S as natural, I can't imagine anyone bidding 4H as anything but texas. Maybe big three suited takeout with a void? But who would do that to me! lol. This leaves me to guess about whether 4N is quant or minors, that one is easy I'd take it as quant, with minors hopefully partner would just bid 4D then 5C.

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Undiscussed it would depend who I was playing with, but I'd take 4H as texas and 4S as natural, I can't imagine anyone bidding 4H as anything but texas.

Why can't it be Michaels? Do you always bid 3 with that hand?

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You could also play:

 

4 - good 4 hand

4 - to play

4N - minors

 

You could but that would be quite silly! If you bid 3S then 4S partner will know you had a "good 4S bid." It would be the equivalent of playing after 1N, transfers, texas, and 4S being "to play."

 

Why can't it be Michaels? Do you always bid 3♠ with that hand?

 

Yes, why wouldn't I? Is it meant to be a slam try or what? I have never heard of michaels in this auction. If it is a slam try I don't see why I wouldn't rather have bid 3S, it gives us more room. If partner has spades he can tell us whether his hand is slam positive or not by cuebidding or not cuebidding, which will leave us room to pass more info below game. If he has no spade fit he can learn my minor at the 4 level and have more room. If it is not meant to be a slam try, same thing, at least partner can know my minor at a lower level.

 

I am not even worried about competition, if I bid 3S and they bid 4H partner will bid 4S with a spade fit. If he passes or doubles I can just bid 5 of my minor and be no worse off.

 

Playing 4H as a big 3 suiter with a heart void at least makes sense and doesn't waste a bid, we don't really want to double with a heart void in this sequence especially with slam aspirations as partner will pass it aggressively.

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I thought it was normal to put the quant t through dble and then 4N here.

 

4N =minors no slam interest.

4d then 5c = minors with slam interest

4H=5S5m no slam interest.

3S then a minor = slam interest.

4S=spades no slam interest

3S then 4S = slam interest.

 

 

If you make a t/o double and then want to bid bw, you have to cue 4H. Obviously you need to further discuss what you should do after 1N 3H x 4H.

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