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If I were playing a natural 1 opening, as in T-Walsh or Polish Club, this would be an easy 3 bid. Now, as partner doesn't know what I have, I don't know what partner has, so 2NT may indeed be better. At least it's not matchpoints...
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If I were playing a natural 1 opening, as in T-Walsh or Polish Club, this would be an easy 3 bid. Now, as partner doesn't know what I have, I don't know what partner has, so 2NT may indeed be better. At least it's not matchpoints...

 

Eh? That my 1D opening may have been 4-4-3-2 precisely is irrelevant, that hand is always correcting diamonds to hearts.

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How do we bid this?

 

Well, you can't bid a passable 3C. You need to throw in a cuebid at some point to force to game, and now seems as good a time as any. If partner bids 3NT, you can continue with 4C to offer a choice of slams. Partner should get the idea that you only have 4 of them, and bid NT with only 3.

 

If partner doesn't bid 3NT, then they will choose a suit like X asked for. If it's 4C, you know you have an 8 card fit (which sounds likely anyway). Getting to slam isn't much harder than just bidding it at this point.

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I honestly have no way to find 6 clubs after partner bid 2 NT.

After a more pedestrian 3 club, I had found it easily.

 

This does not make 2 NT the worse bid in the situation you gave, just the successless one.

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Would've been a good time for a support double over 2. If I don't have that agreement, I probably don't have one about 2NT either, so I am not sure what to do. Perhaps I would settle on mgoetze's 3, or maybe just an unimaginative 3.
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6 is obviously the best contract if you know nothing about the opponents' hands. Is it still the best given the 2 bid, or is 6NT now better? (Also, the 2 bid surely increases the chances of 7 too, doesn't it?)
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FWIW you can pitch your on the but 7 looses on the diamond finesse, but getting to 6 (or7) is the problem.

You can take the diamond finesse either way of course. ;) But my question was really: are the odds of getting the diamond finesse right high enough to bid grand, given that one of the suits is "known" to break 3-6?

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Not sure I like the double from the strong hand. With 19, slam is in the picture. Partner's pass shows no penalty double (assuming support doubles through 2) with an opening hand. 3 cue bid instead of the double would elicit 4 from opener and cue bidding gets us to 6.

 

Given the actual auction, I think 3 is indicated over the double. 2N should be scrambling or Lebensohl, so the 3 call is forward-going. Partner should now be alive to the possibility of a slam and cue bid 3 on the way there...

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You can take the diamond finesse either way of course. ;) But my question was really: are the odds of getting the diamond finesse right high enough to bid grand, given that one of the suits is "known" to break 3-6?

I don't think so. It would be close if the diamond queen and the spade suit were the only mathematical considerations. But, there is the possibility that you will also need the diamonds to come in for 4 tricks, not just 3 (4-1 club break).

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I don't think so. It would be close if the diamond queen and the spade suit were the only mathematical considerations. But, there is the possibility that you will also need the diamonds to come in for 4 tricks, not just 3 (4-1 club break).

 

It's a decent mathematical play problem if preemptor shows out on the second round of clubs. Win opening spade lead, Cash 2 rounds of clubs with honors in hand, see E show out, and test hearts. If they are 3-3, you 'know' diamonds are 3-3 (assume 3334 vs 6331) and you just need to guess the suit. If hearts are 4-2 (3424 vs 6241) now you pitch a spade, ruff, draw trumps and guess. You'll also make when preemptor is 6151. Granted you fail against 3244 vs 6421, with preemptor having the diamond Q. But yes, it still comes down to guessing the diamond Q, which ultimately seems a tossup.

 

I think any scenario where spades are 7-2 increases our chances.

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