rduran1216 Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=skjha76dk942cj742&n=saqt4hkqdajcqt985&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1cp2np3sp4cp4dp4hp6cdppp]266|200[/hv] matchpoints. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 blame north just rebid 3nt wtp? I dont get 3s? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 I don't understand the bidding enough to decide blame. South has a game invite opposite an opening bid; if 2NT was Game, it was an overbid. North has a jammed up 18 with chunky short reds (ripe for downgrading). We have a combined semi-balanced 30, and are missing two Key cards if clubs are trump. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 Play either inverted minors or kickback/redwood and you have no problems with this hand, but the key is what 2N showed. If S is max for this, N is over optimistic, if it was a GF, then S overbid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dkham Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 If you play RKCB 1430 North can bid 4NT instead of jumping to 6♣: South replies 5♣ - 1/4 keycards, must be 1 so North passes and plays 5♣South replies 5♦ - 0/3 keycards, must be 3 keycards for South's bidding so far (he's shown ace of hearts already), so North bids 6♣South replies 5♥ - 2 keycards no queen, North bids 6♣ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 If 2NT was an invite then 3S is overbid, just bid 3NT.If 2NT was forcing then 3S is again not very good. We have a lot of cards in diamonds and hearts and our hand is NT'ish. I would bid 4NT and play there. Havaing bid 3S we overbid again by bidding 6C. We have minimum hand with bad localization, we should just bid 4S cuebid and wait for partner to decide. He still have a chance to bid 5C with minimum. kickback/redwoodRKCB Before you play any ace asking bid, including RKCB it's good idea to learn about hand valuation. You ask for aces to see if there are any aces missing if slam values are there, it won't solve your problems if you are unable to establish those in the first place. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dave_w Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 Did bidding 6♣ even cost anything? If 3NT was scoring more than 9 (most of the time I'd say) - then the decision to bid on to 5♣ was bad. If 2NT was invite then bid 3NT. If 2NT was forcing then either (a) bid 4NT or (b) bid 3S then 4NT or © bid 3S and pass 3NT. I guess that means most of the blame is North's. Also: this is boring. How can anyone think South was to blame for this? Damn I wish this was usenet and I could create a kill file. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 if you play 2NT invitational you don't need blackwod, you need 5 fingers in one hand, ♠K ♥A ♦K ♣AK = 5 bullets, partner cannot hold more than 3, period. EDIT: Oh lol, I forgot to mention we miss ♣J as well!. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 It looks like south made a balanced invite, which is an underbid, but a reasonable one. North's three spade bid is basically hopeless. South denied 4S so the on reason to bid 3S is to get partner focused on holding black suit cards for slam. Slam just looks hoplessly far away with the north hand, he has an auto 3N bid over an invitational 2N. If 2N was some kind of forcing with a balanced hand, then south should bid 3N over 3S anyway, as north could just have some 15 count looking for extras. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 I have to echo the sentiments set forth above. North has a 3NT bid. Anything else is very wishful thinking. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 if you play 2NT invitational you don't need blackwod, you need 5 fingers in one hand, ♠K ♥A ♦K ♣AK = 5 bullets, partner cannot hold more than 3, period. EDIT: Oh lol, I forgot to mention we miss ♣J as well!.Don't understand your counting, Kxx, Axx, xxx, KJxx is an excellent slam, but there aren't many hands that are, and a lot more that aren't. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sathyab Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 Don't understand your counting, Kxx, Axx, xxx, KJxx is an excellent slam, but there aren't many hands that are, and a lot more that aren't. 2nt doesn't look right with Kxx Axx xxx KJxx. You could miss a slam, but more importantly could be wrong-siding 3nt. I'd try an inverted 2♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jogs Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=skjha76dk942cj742&n=saqt4hkqdajcqt985&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1cp2np3sp4cp4dp4hp6cdppp]266|200[/hv] matchpoints. What's wrong with 1♦? Is South a handhog? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 What's wrong with 1♦? Is South a handhog?A better question is what is wrong with 2NT? 4-4-3-2, no major suit, protection for the KJ of spades and the ♦K, correct point count. If you won't bid 2NT on this hand, when will you bid 2NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 23, 2012 Report Share Posted May 23, 2012 What's wrong with 1♦? Is South a handhog?In what partnership? If you had read any of the responses, above, you might notice there is a difference of opinion about the nature of 1C-2N. Some are o.k. with it being an invite, and others believe it is a g.f. I don't think anyone knows how South intended it. Then there is a slight disagreement about whether the given hand is an invite or a game force. If you believe 2NT should be game force, AND this hand is not one, then your 1D response is appropriate; we happen to be in that camp and would bid 1D. That doesn't make 1D correct for other pairs, and certainly doesn't make anyone a handhog. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SteveMoe Posted May 24, 2012 Report Share Posted May 24, 2012 As others, 3N not 3♠. Once control bidding starts jumping to 6♣ is irresponsible. 4♠ will precipitate 5♣ (poor trumps partner) and we are (Safe) in a poorer scoring game. That's the risk of overvaluing the North hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted May 24, 2012 Report Share Posted May 24, 2012 The hand illustrates how the absence of using RKC lands you in a contract which is OFF 2 cards -- namely the A and K of trumps. North took a shot at 6C after 4-level cue-bids, because he probably knew 4NT as RKC would push them above 5C anyway ( if RKC = 03 14 ). Better if his 4D! were kickback-RKC . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdeegan Posted May 25, 2012 Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 :P North screwed things up. He needs to make a mild to moderate slam try with 4NT and leave the decision to partner. Partner will value ♣ cards properly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted May 25, 2012 Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=skjha76dk942cj742&n=saqt4hkqdajcqt985&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1cp2np3sp4cp4dp4hp6cdppp]266|200[/hv] matchpoints. If 2nt is invitational, North should have ended the bidding with 3nt.The bidding only makes sense if 2nt is game-forcing. If you play 1430 RKB, North could have checked keycards.South is blameless. Steven Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted May 25, 2012 Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 If 2nt is invitational, North should have ended the bidding with 3nt.The bidding only makes sense if 2nt is game-forcing. If you play 1430 RKB , North could have checked keycards.South is blameless. StevenThis hand could be the "poster child" for 1430 . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted May 25, 2012 Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 This hand could be the "poster child" for 1430 .Err ... no, it's a poster child for using 4♦ to ask for aces then don't care whether 1430/0314 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dboxley Posted May 25, 2012 Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=skjha76dk942cj742&n=saqt4hkqdajcqt985&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=p1cp2np3sp4cp4dp4hp6cdppp]266|200[/hv] matchpoints. If 2NT is invitational then 90% N for not just bidding 3NT over 2NT. I personally would have responded 1D but 2NT could work out, especially at matchpoints. If 2NT is forcing then 90% N for not just bidding 3C to set trump, make a slam try, and initiate cue bidding. This is pretty easy when playing up the line so that N knows that S holds at least 4 clubs. (I suppose that 3343 with bad diamonds is a possibility but then S would rebid 3NT). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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