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Texas or Transfer


dickiegera

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4D for majors, what is best for 4C is unclear for me.

You could make it natural and forcing, but maybe that won't be needed very much; and a flipflop might work better:

 

4C=majors --without one, opener can bid 4D allowing responder to bid a 5-bagger.

4D=one major and longer clubs -- pass-or-correct continuations

4M=to play

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Partner opens 1NT and RHO interferes with 3

 

Is it better to play 4 bid as texas transfer to

or as stayman for majors?

 

Thank you

 

 

Since you are asking this in expert forum, texas still on and DBL = take out for most experts that i know :) I am saying this because i am confident that most real experts play this take out, and it doesnt make sense to play both take out double and 4 stayman.

 

Besides, 4 showing 4-4 majors/stayman is nonsense, after all NT opener doesnt have to hold a 4 card major, in fact best game can still be 3 NT :) With 5-5 majors, you can start DBL and then bid 4 .

 

FYI, it is same after 2 NT opening and natural 3 overcall. If you dont like to play texas here, you can use 4 for better purposes. Just dont use it as stayman with 4-4 majors. You have DBL available for those hands.

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4D would not have to be stayman, it could be 5-5+ majors. I have played both ways (texas on or 4D both majors) and think both are fine, I would say that texas off is what I would assume to be expert standard.

 

To reply to timo, I don't think Xing with 5-5 majors is always satisfactory, partner might pass it. Or LHO might bid which might hurt your plans.

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.

 

To reply to timo, I don't think Xing with 5-5 majors is always satisfactory, partner might pass it. Or LHO might bid which might hurt your plans.

 

If one doesnt like 4 being texas, they can use it to show 5-5 majors. All i am saying is 4-4 majors (stayman) doesnt make sense. ( at least not to me)

 

 

 

 

FYI, it is same after 2 NT opening and natural 3 overcall. If you dont like to play texas here, you can use 4 for better purposes. Just dont use it as stayman with 4-4 majors. You have DBL available for those hands.

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My methods are a combination of what others have already said.

 

The 3 overcall has disrupted all my standard methods. Now a whole new set of rules kicks in. The pre-empt has given some info about the distribution. The overcaller has 7 and opener has at least 2, may have 3. That leaves a maximum of 4 between the other 2 players, one of which may be holding a singleton. If the singleton is held by the 1NT opener’s partner, how do I show it?

 

In the bidding sequence posted: 1NT-3-?

1. X = stolen bid, asking for partner to transfer to .

...a. 3H followed by a raise to game would be a mild slam try, showing 6X, some HCP and shortness.

...b. 3 followed by 3 would show 4-5, with or without mild slam interest.

...c. 3 followed by 3NT giving partner a choice of places to play, with or without mild slam interest. This would show only 5X.

2. 3 = transfer to . 3 followed by 4 = 5-5-2-1 (compare with 3 below)

3. 4 = cue-bid, implying shortness, both majors and also a mild slam try. This bidding sequence suggests that are longer than , usually 5-4 (can be 5-5, then responders distribution would be 5-5-1-2).

4. 4 = Stayman, this time with the majors always unequal in length, always longer (4-6).

5. 4 = to play (no slam interest). The 3 overcall has disrupted my normal methods. Unfortunately the stronger hand is now displayed on the table. Similarly 4 would be to play, no slam interest. With mild slam interest in the bidding would proceed as follows: 1NT-3-3 (transfer to ). 3 will be lifted to 4 as a mild slam try. Without the opposition intervention, normal Texas / SA Texas would be in force as a signoff in the applicable major.

 

That leaves the 3 bid still unused after opposition intervention. What can it be used for? Some like to use it as a transfer into a single suited hand. Another possibility would be to use it as showing exactly 4-4 in the majors.

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Some like to use it as a transfer into a single suited hand. Another possibility would be to use it as showing exactly 4-4 in the majors.

Use it as both. In response 3NT denies a 4 card major (then 4 shows the GOSH) while 4 shows at least one 4 card major and declines a club slam try and 4 shows at least one 4 card major and accepts a club slam try. Over either 4m response a 4 bid is pass/correct for a major and other bids show clubs. I am not sure you are necessarily gaining over a traditional takeout double here though.

 

Also, this question has come up a number of times. For example this one from February, where Justin responded with a little more detail than above, and this short thread from less than 2 weeks ago, which seems to apply generally despite the title.

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1NT-(3)-?

x=takeout, looking for 4 card majors mostly, happy to defend if opener has diamond length+strength

3=spades, inv+

3=hearts, GF

3NT=what it says on the tin

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After 1NT - 3D we play:

 

3H = spades

3S = hearts

4C = clubs

4D = both majors

4M = to play

 

After 1NT - 3C:

 

3D = hearts

3H = spades

3S = diamonds

4C = diamonds and a major

4D = majors

4M = to play

 

After 1NT - 3H:

 

Dbl = 4+ spades

3S = not 4 spades, GF

4C = diamonds

4D = clubs

4H = 6+ spades

4S = both minors

 

After 1NT - 3S:

 

4C = diamonds

4D = hearts

4H = clubs

4S = minors

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My methods are a combination of what others have already said.

 

The 3 overcall has disrupted all my standard methods. Now a whole new set of rules kicks in. The pre-empt has given some info about the distribution. The overcaller has 7 and....

 

You need to get out more if you think the overcaller has promised a 7-card suit

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Han's (and can we EVER forget GWNN's???) brilliant switch of 3 and 3 makes a lot of sense to me since we've run out of room to transfer (like we can over 3)). It seems like handling the 5-5's isn't a big deal since we can rebid 4 over 3N or 3.

 

edited

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Han's switch of 3 and 3 makes a lot of sense to me since we've run out of room to transfer (like we can over 3)). It seems like handling the 5-5's isn't a big deal since we can rebid 4 over 3N or 3.

:angry:

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Just for fun ( if you can give up the penalty DBL ):

 

1NT - ( 3D ) - ??

 

............... DBL = ( stole my bid ) transfer to

............... 3H! = transfer to

............... 3S! = transfer to

............... 3NT = to play

............... 4C! = the Majors

............... 4D! = and

............... 4H! = and

 

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

Note: Opener is Declarer in all cases

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Switching 3H and 3S over 3D is virtually standard
Im a strong believer in transfers, switchs and everything that put overcaller on leads (or allow you to sign off or show a big hand). However lately I did see a fair number of preempts hands where It was costly to get the preemptor on leads. The preemptor had a singleton and get a ruff (its the only lead that defeat the contract), partner of preemptor had a void in the preempt suit and cant lead it but if its preemptor is on lead its ugly.

 

Im just wondering if anyone else did get the feeling that it might not be as good as we think to get a preemptor on lead.

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