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Stayman over Cappelletti


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Should the explanation of North's double include a minimum strength?

[hv=lin=pn|bbradley62,~~M48377,~~M48375,~~M48376|st%7C%7Cmd%7C3S28JKH3QKD257JCJA%2CS79H78TDKAC248TQK%2CS46TQH26AD3469QC5%2C%7Crh%7C%7Cah%7CBoard%201%7Csv%7Co%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C1N%7Can%7Cnotrump%20opener.%20Could%20have%205M.%20--%202-5%20C%3B%7Cmb%7C2C%21%7Can%7CCappelletti%20-%20single%20suited%20--%2014-%20HCP%3B%2010%2B%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cd%7Can%7CStayman%20--%2011-%20HCP%3B%2012-%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C2S%7Can%7C2-5%20C%3B%202-5%20D%3B%202-3%20H%3B%204-5%20S%3B%2015-17%20HCP%3B%201%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7C4S%7Can%7C4%2B%20S%3B%2011-%20HCP%3B%2010-12%20total%20points%20%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cmb%7Cp%7Cpc%7CDA%7Cpc%7CD3%7Cpc%7CDT%7Cpc%7CD5%7Cpc%7CH7%7Cpc%7CH2%7Cpc%7CHJ%7Cpc%7CHK%7Cpc%7CS2%7Cpc%7CS9%7Cpc%7CST%7Cpc%7CSA%7Cpc%7CD8%7Cpc%7CD2%7Cpc%7CDK%7Cpc%7CD4%7Cpc%7CH8%7Cpc%7CH6%7Cpc%7CH4%7Cpc%7CHQ%7Cpc%7CSK%7Cpc%7CS7%7Cpc%7CS4%7Cpc%7CS5%7Cpc%7CS8%7Cpc%7CC4%7Cpc%7CSQ%7Cpc%7CS3%7Cpc%7CD6%7Cpc%7CC9%7Cpc%7CDJ%7Cpc%7CCT%7Cpc%7CD7%7Cpc%7CC8%7Cpc%7CDQ%7Cpc%7CC6%7Cpc%7CD9%7Cpc%7CH9%7Cpc%7CCJ%7Cpc%7CC2%7Cpc%7CC5%7Cpc%7CC3%7Cpc%7CCA%7Cpc%7CCQ%7Cpc%7CH3%7Cpc%7CHT%7Cpc%7CHA%7Cpc%7CH5%7Cpc%7CS6%7Cpc%7CC7%7Cpc%7CSJ%7Cpc%7CCK%7C]360|270[/hv]

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Yes, that's what it means. I'm asking whether this is a "misprint": would GIB bid Stayman with a 3-count? Found my answer...

...but not 4441 or (43)51.

I always thought classic shape was 4441?

no reason not include (43)51 most players would do that, but I guess not GIB

especially on a weak hand.

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I am curious, if there is no capelletti call will GIB bid 4 still or invite with 3 call. Seems like GIB upgrades his hand if there has been some sort of call by the opps.

I would expect GIB to count his hand as 10 total points and to go to game opposite the 1NT opener.

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  • 3 weeks later...

GIB counts the hand as 10TP and therefor bids game ( as long major fit was found). It needs 10+TP

With 9TP it would invite with 3.

 

If South rebid was 2/2 GIB would bid 2NT as invite.

 

Here you see 11-HCP and 12-TP just because North is passed hand. And that's the maximum.

 

If South was opener the explanation would be just "Stayman" so how the minumum points should apply? You can't tell in advance which scheme would follow after.

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