JonnyQuest Posted May 3, 2012 Report Share Posted May 3, 2012 IMP's Vulnerable vs. Not-Vul Partner, in 2nd seat opens 1NT (SAYC so 15-17). What do you respond, with the condition it be a "Correct SAYC" auction? :blink:[hv=pc=n&s=sak983hk97dk7cjt8&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=p1np]133|200[/hv] Thanks! 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dkham Posted May 3, 2012 Report Share Posted May 3, 2012 Is this poll to settle an argument? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antrax Posted May 3, 2012 Report Share Posted May 3, 2012 I think you're only supposed to play in 3NT over 4M with extra HCPs in matchpoints. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted May 3, 2012 Report Share Posted May 3, 2012 If you don't transfer to spades, you don't give yourself the chance to find a slam if partner breaks the transfer. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
campboy Posted May 3, 2012 Report Share Posted May 3, 2012 It might be worth including Stayman as an option. Golden mean fallacy? Never heard of it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
masse24 Posted May 6, 2012 Report Share Posted May 6, 2012 I think you're only supposed to play in 3NT over 4M with extra HCPs in matchpoints. This. I absolutely transfer with this hand. Why give up on a potential 9 card fit (or even 10)? Why give up on exploring slam were opener to super-accept? Would be shocked to see any other answer. :blink: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 7, 2012 Report Share Posted May 7, 2012 Transfer, followed by 3NT. If you hit partner with a super accept, than 6S is a real option. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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