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Level 1 decision


whereagles

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What does this show?

 

1 pass pass Dbl

pass 2

 

I wasn't able to bid or make a take-out double first round, yet I have now cue-bid. Does it show a hand like 2-3-4-4 15-count with no heart stop (thus stuck for a bid last round?). Or maybe a decent minor 2-suiter that felt it too unsafe to bid last time around.

 

If so, then 2 followed by 3 over a spade bid by partner can't show such a hand (as was perhaps suggested previously).

 

At least one of the 3 others at the table must have 5 spades. If it is not partner, then RHO was probably something like 4-5-2-2 and LHO something like 5-2-3-3, thus giving partner the almost perfect 4-1-4-4.

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What does this show?

 

1 pass pass Dbl

pass 2

 

I wasn't able to bid or make a take-out double first round, yet I have now cue-bid. Does it show a hand like 2-3-4-4 15-count with no heart stop (thus stuck for a bid last round?). Or maybe a decent minor 2-suiter that felt it too unsafe to bid last time around.

 

If so, then 2 followed by 3 over a spade bid by partner can't show such a hand (as was perhaps suggested previously).

 

At least one of the 3 others at the table must have 5 spades. If it is not partner, then RHO was probably something like 4-5-2-2 and LHO something like 5-2-3-3, thus giving partner the almost perfect 4-1-4-4.

IMO the 2 call shows roughly a balanced or slightly off-shape 13-15 count; i.e., a hand unsuitable for direct action over 1.

 

AQx, Axx, Kxxx, xxx feels about right, so does: Ax, Kxxx, AQxx, xx. In other words it likely shows one of JT's 1N overcalls :)

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What does this show?

 

1 pass pass Dbl

pass 2

No free suit bid after a takeout double is forcing, even with a jump. Traditionally a cue-bid is meant to establish game force. Here I would use this cue-bid as quasi-game force.

 

One thing advancer doesn't have is a heart stack, or a hand suitable for 3NT. But he does have a good hand (See phil's response), to issue such a strong invite. Since I would overcall on most four card suits with an excuse to bid at the one level, I would tend to think this hand lacks a four card spade suit, or has a weak four card suit, and certainly not a biddable minor at the two level either. So I think phil has it right on the nose. A 3-3-(43) or 2-3-4-4 or 3-2-4-4 unsuitable for direct action, and nice point count without a heart stopper or with a stopper but interest in seeing if you can bid 3NT from your side for lead purposes.

 

Ben

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AQx, Axx, Kxxx, xxx feels about right, so does: Ax, Kxxx, AQxx, xx. In other words it likely shows one of JT's 1N overcalls ;)

My ears are burning...

 

Jeez, then how would you read:

 

1 P P X

P 2NT?

 

In my case it's easy. My partner has no need to protect me just in case I had 12-15 balanced- if I passed with that, there's a reason. And partner's not going to forego a 1 response with six, not when we could lose the spade suit entirely.

 

So when I bid 2, partner's not going to get exited. If he has 10-15 hcp, he'll pass, not bid his spades. If he has 16+, he's not going to get excited when I rebid 2NT over 2. He can figure out what's going on.

 

I would interpret 2 as saying "I am in control, now tell me what you've got". Of course, that's how you get the odd auction of:

 

1 P P X

P 2 P 3

P 4 P 4

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Isn't there another question to be asked here?

 

What does this mean in an experienced partnership or the one in the hand discussed here?

 

1 pass pass 2

 

Seems there might be some negative inferences available.

 

Sean

I use the suggestion of Lawrence's that unusual 2NT and Michaels are OFF in the balancing seat, so:

 

- balancing cue = semiGF takeout, usually not interest in hearing a penalty pass if he had doubled; typical hands are strong 1/2 suiters, strong 5440, usually holding a void or little defense in opps suit;

 

- balancing 2NT = shows about a 21+ balanced

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In this situation I reasoned as follows.

 

What does partner have? Quite likely, from opps silence, he has spades and a good opening. Given my void, possibly even 6 spades. 7 spades is out of the question because he would have balanced 3S or 4S on that, so the suit rates to have 2-3 losers.

 

What is going to happen if I bid 2m? Pard is going to bid spades and I'm stuck. If I now insist with 3C or 3D, he'll definitely play me for some values and bid to what seems to be a hopeless game. I'd have to pass 2S and that rates to be a bad contract.

 

How about passing? Clearly not a textbook pass, but the situation isn't textbook either. My hand is next to worthless in offense, but it's not so bad in defense. We might miss a game, but given the misfit, game would require quite a monster hand in pard. 1H doubled might make, the worst-case-scenario being at most 1 overtrick. Not good, but since this is imps it shouldn't cost much, and sure beats 2S with a couple of vulnerable undertricks. Meanwhile, 1H doubled can go down a trick or two, and that should be an excellent score. I think I'll pass.

 

Right or wrong, that turned out to be the right move, for pard had:

 

KQTxxx

A

AJx

xxx

 

As the cards laid, declarer is booked for 1 down. He actually went two down, (mis)playing me for AJxxx of trumps ;)

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