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West claims in defense and tables their last two cards


jules101

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South is declarer in a heart contract, and these cards remain

 

[hv=pc=n&s=shd95c&w=shadc5&n=sht3dc&e=shkdjc]399|300[/hv]

 

West is on lead and tables his cards saying "One each".

 

He's obviously been asleep and oblivious to the fact that East may still have K (trumps] and that by leading 5 then the defense can take two tricks.

 

East immediately objects to the claim (as she is is entitled to do).

 

Director is called and situation is explained.

 

You are aware that 16D now applies, West now has some UI.

 

 

What happens next?

 

May declarer ask for A to be led at this point?

 

May West lead the card of his choice - ie 5 - given he now has UI that this might work better for the defense?

 

Does it make any difference that West has tabled his cards? [Even if not tabled surely he still has some UI].

 

 

I thought this would be "simple", but can't quite find out if it would now be "normal" for West to lead 5 at this point.

 

 

How do you rule?

 

One each, or two tricks for the defense?

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Let's read Law 68B2.

 

Regardless of 1 preceding, if a defender attempts to concede one or more

tricks and his partner immediately objects, no concession has occurred.

Unauthorized information may exist, so the Director should be summoned

immediately. Play continues. Any card that has been exposed by a defender

in these circumstances is not a penalty card but Law 16D applies to

information arising from its exposure and the information may not be used

by the partner of the defender who has exposed it.

 

And now your questions:

 

What happens next?

 

May declarer ask for A to be led at this point?

 

May West lead the card of his choice - ie 5 - given he now has UI that this might work better for the defense?

As stated in 68B2, play continues. However, West has UI which suggests playing 5, and the claim statement establishes that A is a LA for him, so West must choose A or suffer further rectification.

 

Does it make any difference that West has tabled his cards? [Even if not tabled surely he still has some UI].

This gives UI to East, but that is not likely to matter any more.

 

I thought this would be "simple", but can't quite find out if it would now be "normal" for West to lead 5 at this point.

It doesn't matter, "no concession has occurred".

 

How do you rule?

Play continues, and if West chooses to play 5 and East ruffs, I will adjust the score.

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He can ask. The TD will ignore the request. Declarer has no control over what West may do. He does in Rubber Bridge, but not in Duplicate.

More straightforwardly (except in rubber bridge) "He can't ask". It would moreover be a violation of the proprieties to attempt to do so.

 

The present case is straightforward. There are two cards. It is clearly a misuse of UI to lead one of them. Why do we go through the charade of giving the player apparent freedom, and then shooting him when he uses it? Because other cases are more complicated.

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Both trumps are on the table, so it is no-win to play the heart over the club. It isn't clear to me from OP if West is tabling his hand thinking that he's playing the A, or if he is unsure who has the K but thinks it is S so thinks S will score the K when he plays the .
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Both trumps are on the table, so it is no-win to play the heart over the club. It isn't clear to me from OP if West is tabling his hand thinking that he's playing the A, or if he is unsure who has the K but thinks it is S so thinks S will score the K when he plays the .

Either way he seems to have thought it doesn't matter what he plays, thus A is a LA.

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