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MP's[hv=pc=s&n=sj86ha3da7cakqj42&s=sak952h982dqjt3c5&d=s&v=b&b=13&a=2s(Muiderberg)p4n(RKC)p5h(2%20of%205%2C%20no%20SQ)p6sppp]266|200[/hv]

LHO leads 6 (3th/5th): 6A52

and you play 6 from dummy: 63A4

How do you continue?

 

If you play now then it goes:

59AT (reverse count)

 

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I play the K and if the Queen drops doubleton I play the Jack . Id suit breaks 4-1 I'm down 2. If 3-2 with Q10x then I have only one loser.

 

Assuming it doesnt I play the Clubs next discarding . If the Clubs break 5-1 with the hand with a singleton holding the Q down 1 any other break and the losing / are going on the Clubs and we have a loser on loser play on Q when which ever hand ruff withs the Q .

 

No doubt the wrong line :)

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(2 tricks)

cash the K (3 tricks)

if the Q goes down, bang down the 10 by playing the J (4 tricks)

then cash the (10 tricks)

play the A and eat the remaining (13 tricks taken)

 

if the Q does not go down, start cashing the and discard the . After they use the Q to ruff, if they lead a , eat the A immediately. However, if they lead a , ruff it by south. The contract is set only when the Q can be used before all of south are used up.

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RHO had singleton T and Q73.

The contract only makes if you run after only playing A.

Is that situation more likely than singleton club and xxx trumps the other side and also you're giving up some of the chance of 13 where clubs are 4-2 and Q drops, and also what are you going to do if he ruffs the 2nd club with the 10.

 

It may be successful, but is it best ?

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Is that situation more likely than singleton club and xxx trumps the other side and also you're giving up some of the chance of 13 where clubs are 4-2 and Q drops, and also what are you going to do if he ruffs the 2nd club with the 10.

 

It may be successful, but is it best ?

I analyzed this in Jack, after starting with A, to A and to A:

Expected score for playing:

- K: 766.8

- 8: 533.8

It is not clear for me where the difference is coming from.

If are 4-1 then West can go wrong by ruffing the 2nd Club low.

Or if West has 4c and 2c he can go wrong by ruffing the 2nd Club.

But I don't think this is a good explanation of the result of the analysis.

....Probably this is another failure of the DD analysis:

If West has QTxx then you are down if you start with AK.

Therefor Jack prefers to start with because he knows DD that he will go down when starting with AK and that he can make against that distribution when he does not start with AK (can make if he finesses later in ).

But when he has to play on spades later he will not finesse anyway and still go down.

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