paulg Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 This auction almost happened in the Lady Milne vugraph but it has led to a debate spanning the country (and almost an ocean). [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1sp2cp2hp2sp3c]200|150[/hv] How forcing is 3♣ in this auction, playing standard methods? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 I'm pretty sure standard is NF invitational. I am also pretty sure everyone (any good) I know plays it as forcing. Its a general meta rule that one does not correct partscores. Virtually every time it comes up it is better to just the strain correction as forcing. The other super obvious example is 1x-1y-2y-3x, Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 Its a general meta rule that one does not correct partscores. Virtually every time it comes up it is better to just the strain correction as forcing.You seem to think that the only possibile meanings are forcing and correction. Some sequences are best played as invitational and non-forcing. The other super obvious example is 1x-1y-2y-3x,If x is a minor and y is a major, I think it's best to play that one as invitational. How else do you bid a 10-count with only four of y, and a known eight-card fit in x? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 In Paul's poll, I think that outside the British Isles (and possibly Australasia) this sequence is forcing. In Acol-land I think that for many people the 3♣ bid is still non-forcing. That's not a correction of contract, but an exploratory move on a 5413 10-count. Give it another 20 years and we'll all be playing it as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 if 2♥ is forcing then 3♣ is game forcing, with invitational value you raise previous round.ç if 2♥ is not forcing then this makes no sense but won´t be forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted April 15, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 2♥ is definitely forcing. The hands that caused the discussion were: ♠Axxxx ♥Kxxx ♦x ♣Kxx and ♠Axxxx ♥Kxxx ♦K ♣Kxx On the first, an invitational 3♣ is best and on the second a forcing 3♣. You have to give something up and playing three clubs as forcing means that you have to lose hearts, at least for now, on the first hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 On the first, an invitational 3♣ is best and on the second a forcing 3♣. You have to give something up and playing three clubs as forcing means that you have to lose hearts, at least for now, on the first hand.You can give up clubs instead: bid 2♥ and then pass 2♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 This auction almost happened in the Lady Milne vugraph but it has led to a debate spanning the country (and almost an ocean). [hv=d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1sp2cp2hp2sp3c]200|150[/hv] How forcing is 3♣ in this auction, playing standard methods?I would think the "meta rule" would be that "cheapest new suit" would be forcing ( 2D! ) and could be artificial.Thus, 2H here would be natural and not forcing:Ergo:1C - 1S2C - 2D!2S - 3C = GF and removes interest in ♠ whereas:1C - 1S 2C - 2H ( non-forcing, showing 5s/4h )2S - 3C ... I have no idea unless Responder considered 2H = forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 100 % forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 I would think the "meta rule" would be that "cheapest new suit" would be forcing ( 2D! ) and could be artificial.Thus, 2H here would be natural and not forcing:Ergo:1C - 1S2C - 2D!2S - 3C = GF and removes interest in ♠ whereas:1C - 1S 2C - 2H ( non-forcing, showing 5s/4h )2S - 3C ... I have no idea unless Responder considered 2H = forcing.In this last sequence, although 2♥ is NF, presumably it shows either some extra strength or distributional assets - else you'd leave it in 2♣. Hence this sequence is showing the 5413 invitational hand. On a related note, isn't there a method where 2♦ and 2♥ opposite 1♣ show 5/4 in the majors with various strengths? That would have helped here! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 To me this is as forcing as it can be. 1♣--1♠2♣--3♣ is invitational to me. Am i too simple minded ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 To me this is as forcing as it can be. 1♣--1♠2♣--3♣ is invitational to me. Am i too simple minded ? The theory is that if you have 5 spades and 4 hearts, you don't want to bid 3C since partner might pass with 4 hearts and a min or 3 spades and a min, in which case you might miss a game because you only have values for it with a major suit fit, therefore you want to use this sequence to solve that problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 The theory is that if you have 5 spades and 4 hearts, you don't want to bid 3C since partner might pass with 4 hearts and a min or 3 spades and a min, in which case you might miss a game because you only have values for it with a major suit fit, therefore you want to use this sequence to solve that problem. I had no clue that we have a side 4 card ♥ untill you warned , because that 2♥ bid in the given auction does not promise 4 ♥ for me. (AQTxx AJT xx AJx) Of course you are right i wouldnt raise ♣ directly with side 4♥ and inv hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted April 15, 2012 Report Share Posted April 15, 2012 The theory is that if you have 5 spades and 4 hearts, you don't want to bid 3C since partner might pass with 4 hearts and a min or 3 spades and a min, in which case you might miss a game because you only have values for it with a major suit fit, therefore you want to use this sequence to solve that problem. So why not continue with 2D as an artificial invitational + check back? I've played 1C-1S, 2C -2H as nf because responder has the 2D bid available. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 So why not continue with 2D as an artificial invitational + check back? I've played 1C-1S, 2C -2H as nf because responder has the 2D bid available. You can obviously play artificial methods. In that case, if you bid 2D and partner bids something and you bid 3C is it forcing? It is the same problem. I would say it is 100 % forcing, but then you have issues with 5413 invite that doesn't want to bid 3C over 2C for the reasons I described earlier. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 You can obviously play artificial methods. In that case, if you bid 2D and partner bids something and you bid 3C is it forcing? It is the same problem. I would say it is 100 % forcing, but then you have issues with 5413 invite that doesn't want to bid 3C over 2C for the reasons I described earlier. Unless you play Reverse Flannery, you need to be able to show 5S/4H in a constructive but nf manner to avoid such embarrassments as 5431 opposite 1435. If you play (and I think many do) that 2D is an artificial inquiry, then the basic question at any subsequent point is " does this bid need to be forcing?". 1C-1S, 2C-2D... 2H-2S. Forcing2N Not forcing2N-3C forcing because responder could simply have raised clubs2H-3H not forcing2S-3S not forcing2S-3H forcing2H-3C forcing because responder could simply have raised clubs Happy to be corrected on those. With an invitational 5413, I think one might just raise clubs and let opener check back for a major suit fit. This avoids a nf 2H rebid or a 2D inquiry and later 3C forcing bid. After 1C-1S, 2C-2H, 2S where 2H is nf and 2S is a simple preference, then I think it's not possible that opener has only 5 clubs (assuming pd raises spades with 3145) such that... 1C-1S, 2C-2H, 2S-3C might be a 5422 or 5512 that has only constructive strength. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jogs Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 100 % forcing.Yes, 100% forcing as played in the USA. Still think theexperts are wrong. Non forcing makes more expectedvalue sense.Bid 3D with the forcing hand.Essentially the two likely games are 3NT and 5C. Sometimestwo opening hands can't make game.Responder's likely pattern is 5=4=1=3. When in 3NT it isa race to 9 tricks for us and 5 tricks for them. They areusually leading diamonds. AKQxxx and 3 side aces is9 tricks. When our points are not in aces they will oftenwin the race.Axxxx, Kxxx, x, KxxQx, Qx, Qxx, AQxxxxSeems unlikely that there's game anywhere. When the clubtop honors are missing, the tricks are greatly reduced.Axxxx, Kxxx, x, KxxQJ, AQ, Kxx, QxxxxxNow there may be two club losers. I like non forcing. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 I think there is something being overlooked by the posters who believe 3C is NF in this case. 1C-1S2C-2H2S-3C..... Responder must have considered 2H at least one-round forcing, lest he would have passed the 2S preference. Our side must have a spade fit (5-3), or responder would have not taken the 2H route to this point. Therefore, responder is not looking to play a club partial instead of a spade partial. But, just in case you would bid this way as responder with (say) 4-3-2-4, the strength of the hand must certainly be enough for at least game and probably slam, or you wouldn't be torturing opener. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted April 16, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 I think there is something being overlooked by the posters who believe 3C is NF in this case. 1C-1S2C-2H2S-3C..... Responder must have considered 2H at least one-round forcing, lest he would have passed the 2S preference. Our side must have a spade fit (5-3), or responder would have not taken the 2H route to this point. Therefore, responder is not looking to play a club partial instead of a spade partial. But, just in case you would bid this way as responder with (say) 4-3-2-4, the strength of the hand must certainly be enough for at least game and probably slam, or you wouldn't be torturing opener.I don't think that opener has promised three spades on this auction, indeed the hand at the table was a minimum 2=2=3=6 and two spades looked the normal call. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jogs Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 I think there is something being overlooked by the posters who believe 3C is NF in this case. 1C-1S2C-2H2S-3C..... Responder must have considered 2H at least one-round forcing, lest he would have passed the 2S preference. Our side must have a spade fit (5-3), or responder would have not taken the 2H route to this point. Therefore, responder is not looking to play a club partial instead of a spade partial. But, just in case you would bid this way as responder with (say) 4-3-2-4, the strength of the hand must certainly be enough for at least game and probably slam, or you wouldn't be torturing opener. If opener has 3 spades, he isn't passing 3Cwhether the bid were forcing or non forcing.Therefore he is likely to be 2=2=3=6 or onan ugly day 2=2=4=5. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 I think it's quite rare for opener to have three spades in this sequence. He might have raised 1♠ to 2♠, and having not done so he would often now give jump preference over 2♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 I much prefer the setup where 2H is non forcing and 2D is at least INV, but if you play 2H forcing then 3C is 100% GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 16, 2012 Report Share Posted April 16, 2012 (edited) 1C - 1S2C - 2D! = artificial force, asks for 4 cards ♥ as a 1st priority ( Edit: ... just as in NMF ) . Edited April 16, 2012 by TWO4BRIDGE Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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