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mgoetze

  

59 members have voted

  1. 1. Bid?



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[hv=pc=n&s=skt7h9765dackt865&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=ppp1dp]133|200|

 

mgoetze writes "gszes and I can't agree what to bid on this hand."

 

IMO 1 = 10, 1N = 9. 2 = 8. We've been brainwashed to bid lousy four card majors but I like 1N which could work out better.[/hv]

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Simple bid 1 . There's not enough points to bid 2 and reverse into s.

 

A very wise old player when asked about his secret to success at bridge said "I don't do anything that I can be criticized for in the post mortem." Sounds sort of corny, but it's actually great advice.

 

In this hand, I don't want to have to explain to partner why we are not playing in our 4-4 fit when partner shows up with something like AKxx or AJ10x. If I bid something else, partner will probably never be able to figure out that I do indeed hold 4 s. And if partner doesn't have s, the bid just might inhibit a lead.

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I had a similar hand recently although one of the clubs was a diamonds and the majors were reversed. Probably for the first time I hid the major. But we do always raise with three and playing 4-3 with that suit quality didn't look promising.

Funnily the opponents interfered and we played in our 4-4 spade fit afterwards.

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If you could bid 1-2;2-2 non-forcing 2, that would be more descriptive, but nobody plays this as non-forcing. Even if you played it as a one-round force, it would be an overbid with a misfit, bad suits, and only a ten-count. But nowadays "everyone" plays this sequence as game-forcing, so 2 isn't even a possibility.
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Because if I don't bid 2 now partner will never be able to figure out my shape later.

 

Does this mean that you play a system in which a subsequent 2 bid is non forcing? If so, then 2 is right for you. However if you play that 2 is forcing, then how will partner ever "be able to figure out my shape later"?

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If you could bid 1-2;2-2 non-forcing 2, that would be more descriptive, but nobody plays this as non-forcing. Even if you played it as a one-round force, it would be an overbid with a misfit, bad suits, and only a ten-count. But nowadays "everyone" plays this sequence as game-forcing, so 2 isn't even a possibility.

 

How do you play this sequence as GF? Did you notice that responder has passed in 2nd seat. They can't make a GF, in fact 2 is NF in much the same way as 1 is NF and ANYTHING a PH bids is NF (except I suppose a splinter)

 

Does this mean that you play a system in which a subsequent 2 bid is non forcing? If so, then 2 is right for you. However if you play that 2 is forcing, then how will partner ever "be able to figure out my shape later"?

 

Of course a subsequent 2 bid is NF. Did you also miss that the responder is a passed hand?

 

I wonder if anyone's vote would change if they'd looked at the auction and seen that they are a passed hand. It's easy to know this at the table .... but when given a problem you have to look at the auction to know what you've already bid (I'm a 1 bidder regardless).

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The problem as I see it, is which of 2C to promise 10 points

- hoping partner continues 2H if he has 4xH.

Or 1H and hope partner gives me a chance to show my max-pass.

If he's not trying game and quits after either 2C or 1H,

I like 2C - hoping opponents reopen. No cheap 1S for them.

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Because if I don't bid 2 now partner will never be able to figure out my shape later.

- And if you belong in 1NT, which I would say is probably your most likely contract at this point, will it really matter that you showed your shape so well?

- He might pass 2C when you belong in hearts.

- Your comment could also be made if you had a 2 count.

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