Quartic Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=st93hq2djt632c965&w=sq82hakj86d74ck82&n=s765h975dak985c43&e=sakj4ht43dqcaqjt7&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=p1cp1h2d2sp3d(forcing)p3hp4cp4dp4hppp&p=da]399|300[/hv] ATB for missing slam? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 I don't understand 3D. Why not 3C and you might get there?By the way that vulnerable 2D overcall is something else again. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 I don't understand 3D. Why not 3C and you might get there?By the way that vulnerable 2D overcall is something else again. Presumably a simple preference to opener's first suit would not have been forcing. Why should it be? By the way, would you have asked "ATB for reaching slam?" when North would have turned up with the ♥Q?Slam is little better than 30%. Rainer Herrmann 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dbsboy Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 Presumably 3♣ is not forcing, West is forced to bid 3♦. In that case, 3♥ shows a fragment and should not set suit. After East shows 4-3-1-5 and extras, West should try for slam for the good-working high card points and fit. I am not sure if West bid 4♣, taking it as setting ♣ suit as trumps or a cuebid setting ♥ as trumps. I prefer the former style, preserving 3♠ and 4♦ as slam-try in hearts. In the former case, 4♥ is a cuebid and East should proceed with 4♠. In the latter case, 4♥ is a signoff. However, from West's point of view, East should at least have AKXX QX XX AQJXX, or AKXX XXX X AQJXX for his 2♠ bid, so he should make a bid to find out the crucial ♦ control from partner. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=st93hq2djt632c965&w=sq82hakj86d74ck82&n=s765h975dak985c43&e=sakj4ht43dqcaqjt7&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=p1cp1h2d2sp3d(forcing)p3hp4cp4dp4hppp&p=da]399|300[/hv] ATB for missing slam? no blame support x over 2d then 4h by west then rkc by east gets you to 5h missing QH and a keycard. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 ♦support x over 2d then 4h by west then rkc by east gets you there.This is about a 50% slam, do you really want to be in it ? and RKC doesn't get you there, you find out you're missing an A and the Q trumps (as you noticed when you edited your post). Would be really tricky if for some reason 6♣ was lots better but it isn't. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 ...This is about a 50% slam...Tell us how you get to 50% after 2 rounds of diamonds. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 Tell us how you get to 50% after 2 rounds of diamonds. Rainer Herrmann I think he answered his own question about a tricky reason why 6♣ is better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 Tell us how you get to 50% after 2 rounds of diamonds. Rainer HerrmannScooped by Phil, I play in 6♣, yes 6♥ is about 40% on 2 rounds of diamonds, but my point about not wanting to be in the slam stands. But practically I play in 5♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 What i dont understand is 2♠ bid. If they are using support DBL then he has support. If they don't play support DBL but take out DBL he has a very good hand for this. All his hcps are in his suits, shortness in opponent suit and 3 card fit to partner. I would take 2♠ as a hand that can play 3♣ if pd can not support ♠. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 14, 2012 Report Share Posted April 14, 2012 Presumably a simple preference to opener's first suit would not have been forcing. Why should it be? By the way, would you have asked "ATB for reaching slam?" when North would have turned up with the ♥Q?Slam is little better than 30%. Rainer Herrmann Of course it should be forcing. Opener has reversed. With a non forcing bid they should go via 2NT. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted April 14, 2012 Report Share Posted April 14, 2012 If they are using support DBL then he has support. If they don't play support DBL but take out DBL he has a very good hand for this.Agree 100%. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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