stansllee Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Play bbo advanced system Notes [hv=pc=n&n=saq98hq942dacaj82&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1np2cp2dp]133|200[/hv] What should North do now? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
broze Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Surely your only real option is to bid 3♣ (GF). If partner raises you can initiate slam bidding and after 3NT bid either 4 or 6 depending on your mood! 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Surely your only real option is to bid 3♣ (GF). I'd have thought both 4NT and 6NT (if you're feeling optimistic) are options. Is partner going to expect such poor clubs for a 3♣ rebid? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
broze Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 I'd have thought both 4NT and 6NT (if you're feeling optimistic) are options. Is partner going to expect such poor clubs for a 3♣ rebid? Interesting. For me, 3♣ says very little about the strength of the suit - only that I have 4(+) and I am investigating strain. Partner will raise or cuebid with 4+ clubs, not improbable with his not having a 4cM. There are plenty of hands where a 4-4 ♣ slam will play much better than a NT slam and if I don't bid ♣ here we might miss it. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Hi, #1 decide, if you want to force to slam, or if you just want to invite.#2 depening on your decision, bid either 4NT or 6NT. Downgrading the hand is ok, you have the Ace of diamonds as a singleton,and this is a fator pointing down, but bidding 6NT is also ok.In the end, if you believe in being pessimistic / cautious in the are ofslam bidding, than 4NT otherwise 6NT. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 I've never seen someone bid 3C on only 4 here - I'd say the 3C bid shows about 5.5 clubs - but on the posted hand most people are going to be very short of options to investigate 6C vs. 6NT. Lacking the methods I would be endplayed into a big notrump raise, unless I was playing a first-round toy that allowed me to show 4441s. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Come back, Baron! All is forgiven. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Come back, Baron! All is forgiven.I have a couple of partners with whom I play Baron after a 1NT-2♦-2♥-2♠ start. It's also not uncommon to bid four-card suits upwards when accepting a 4NT invite. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chasetb Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 I know of a few people that use 1NT - 2♣; 2♦ - 3♣ as Baron for the minors. I use it as showing 4414 or 4405 shape, but asking partner to cuebid with 4 or a really good 3 (KQT is enough, but only just). 3NT, 6♣, and 6NT are all possible contracts, and I want to explore them all. Another plus for my bidding is after Minorwood, partner or I can stop in 4NT as well. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 11, 2012 Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 Play bbo advanced system Notes [hv=pc=n&n=saq98hq942dacaj82&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1np2cp2dp]133|200[/hv] What should North do now?This hand can be shown with a systemic bid if you DON'T play 4 suit transfers , but MSS instead as in jillybean's recent thread ( http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/topic/52192-minor-suit-stayman/page__p__625628__hl__jillybean__fromsearch__1#entry625628 ) That means you can use the following for this hand:1NT - 2NT! = either a ♣ bust or GF 4 4 4 (1 somewhere ) shortness could be a void3C! ( forced ) - ??..................... pass = weak, long Cl..................... 3D! = 4 4 1 4 or 4 4 0 5..................... 3H! = 4 1 4 4 or 4 0 (4 5 or 5 4)..................... 3S! = 1 4 4 4 or 0 4 (4 5 or 5 4)..................... 3NT! = 4 4 4 1 or 4 4 5 0..................... 4C! = " " only stronger than 3NT! So for this hand, Responder rebids 3D! = GF 4 4 1 4 or 4 4 0 5Opener will show his fit [ 4+ cds ]( but we know from your post he doesn't have a 4 card Major ), so he will either bid 3NT ( no fit for ♣ ) or 4C ( ♣ fit ) .If it is 4C, Responder next bids 4D! ( kickback-RKC for ♣ ).If it is 3NT , Responder bids 4NT ( Quant ) or if you feel confident with a minimum of 32 combined hcp, just bid 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stansllee Posted April 11, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 11, 2012 South dealer: NS vulnerable the hands: [hv=pc=n&s=skj2ha6dkqt9cq965&w=s754hkj3dj632ct74&n=saq98hq942dacaj82&e=st63ht875d8754ck3]399|300[/hv] At the table, the bidding went: 1NT - 2♣2♦ - 6NT Since 4NT is Quantitative and 6NT for those who is feeling optimistic) My question now is whats the 5NT means here? Can this be a choice of slam? Partner will bid his 4+ minor on the way to 6NT. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 12, 2012 Report Share Posted April 12, 2012 South dealer: NS vulnerable the hands: [hv=pc=n&s=skj2ha6dkqt9cq965&w=s754hkj3dj632ct74&n=saq98hq942dacaj82&e=st63ht875d8754ck3]399|300[/hv] At the table, the bidding went: 1NT - 2♣2♦ - 6NT Since 4NT is Quantitative and 6NT for those who is feeling optimistic) My question now is whats the 5NT means here? Can this be a choice of slam? Partner will bid his 4+ minor on the way to 6NT.5NT is a quantitative invite to 7NT. But you could agree, to forget about the quatitative invite to a grand slam,and use 5NT as some kind of pick a slam.As an alternative, you could use 5M / 5S in the given seq. as a pick a slam. The advantage of 5M is, that this is certainly a wakeup call in the given seq.,and that it wont show a long strong suit. With the given opening hand, opener will decline the invite, and you will stay outof 6NT, of course you wont reach 6C either, but you will go plus. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted April 12, 2012 Report Share Posted April 12, 2012 My question now is whats the 5NT means here? Can this be a choice of slam? Partner will bid his 4+ minor on the way to 6NT.Yes, 5NT is a choice of slam - a choice of 6NT or 7NT. Partner can bid a four-card minor at the five-level after 4NT, or a five-card minor at the six-level, when accepting a 4NT invite. The problem with your given hands is that partner probably won't be accepting an invite. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
stansllee Posted April 13, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 5NT is a quantitative invite to 7NT. But you could agree, to forget about the quatitative invite to a grand slam,and use 5NT as some kind of pick a slam.As an alternative, you could use 5M / 5S in the given seq. as a pick a slam. The advantage of 5M is, that this is certainly a wakeup call in the given seq.,and that it wont show a long strong suit. With the given opening hand, opener will decline the invite, and you will stay outof 6NT, of course you wont reach 6C either, but you will go plus. With kind regardsMarlowe Sorry, means 5M, everybody knows 5NT is Grand Slam Invitation! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 South dealer: NS vulnerable the hands: [hv=pc=n&s=skj2ha6dkqt9cq965&w=s754hkj3dj632ct74&n=saq98hq942dacaj82&e=st63ht875d8754ck3]399|300[/hv]My question now is whats the 5NT means here? Can this be a choice of slam? Partner will bid his 4+ minor on the way to 6NT. From my post # 10 : 1NT - 2NT!3D! ( 4 4 1 4 ) - 4C 4D! ( kickback-RKC for ♣ ) - 4S ( 2nd step = 1/4 keys )??.. Now 5NT here could be "choice of slams" ( 6C or 6NT ) couldn't it ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 13, 2012 Report Share Posted April 13, 2012 From my post # 10 : 1NT - 2NT!3D! ( 4 4 1 4 ) - 4C 4D! ( kickback-RKC for ♣ ) - 4S ( 2nd step = 1/4 keys )??.. Now 5NT here could be "choice of slams" ( 6C or 6NT ) couldn't it ?South, with KJX AX KQT9 QXXX ---a minimum with great diamonds and a weak club suit ---would not bid 4C. She would bid 3NT. This will encourage North to merely quant 4NT with his stiff diamond bullet. We end in 4NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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