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[hv=pc=n&s=skjhaqt65dkj9532c&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=p1sp2dp2sp3hp3np]133|200[/hv]

 

IMPs. Vanilla 2/1, 2 is the default rebid and doesn't promise 6. Agree/disagree with South's bids so far? What now?

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If you play 2n as waiting over 2s then 3h always shows a hand happy to go past 3n. Partner has basically denied three card diamond or six good spades. Slam just looks far away.

 

It's not even clear to me that passing isn't best. 4h is probably best if partner will correct to 4s with something like 5125 and good spades. If not 4s might be best. That probably carries mild slam interest in a 2461 pattern or 2560. Course then I might miss 4h when partner has 3h. But if he has 3h he could raise initially if his club stop is poor. Which brings us back to pass.

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I suppose that i do not understand 2/1 where Opener does not bid anything useful at his second bid. He apparently does not even mention clubs. So, ignore my post as based on a completely different thinking.
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4 and hope we don't go down in game?

+1

 

I made a 2/1 and showed 5/6 in the reds. If partner can't move over 4, then we are high enough (possibly too high).

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Personally I'd bid 4 rather than 4. Maybe partner has 6 crappy spades and decided he didn't want to bid the suit for a 3rd time. (We are looking at two honors after-all).

 

Would be nice if one of the minors were COG. Do I really need both 4 as some kind of ambiguous slamtry and 4 as forward-going? At the table I'd rather bid 4 than 4 also.

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Ken have you been hijacked? Neither the style nor the content seems like you.

 

I really must quit reading BBF while in the car driving to or from court and then posting as I drive.

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4 describes your hand and you even have a good pass if partner bids 4 .

 

Ken -- opener may be handcuffed from bidding 3 because of the minimum nature of the opening hand. Part of it may be the agreement for the requirements for opener bidding a new suit over a 2/1 response. Many people have their own little slant on what those requirements are.

 

I've played "stone age" 2/1 for years where a simple major rebid shows a minimum hand and any other bid shows extras -- values and/or distribution. Under that scenario, if opener held something like AQxxx Ax x Q10xxx, it's right to bid 2 because the s are not very good. If opener held AQxxx xx x AQ10xx, now 3 may be bid as a start to showing the distribution of the hand. Later in the auction, if responder discerns that the 3 bid was made on distribution and not extra HCP, responder will a pretty good idea of what to expect from the opening hand which can aid in making correct bidding decisions.

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