kgr Posted April 7, 2012 Report Share Posted April 7, 2012 Question triggered by other post.Are following sequences forcing and what do they show?: (1C)-1H-(P)-1S (1C)-1H-(2C)-2S (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3S and how do you play these jumps?:(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S (1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S (1C)-1H-(2C)-3S Remark: In fact we play transfer (1D transfer to H) and Rubens advances, but I don't think that makes a difference for the given sequences? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted April 7, 2012 Report Share Posted April 7, 2012 (1C)-1H-(P)-1SUsually F but a minority play NF. (1C)-1H-(2C)-2SF West of Germany (USA, UK, France...), NF East of Germany (Poland etc.), needs agreement here. (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2SOpposite of above. (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3SUhm... I dunno. and how do you play these jumps?:(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S (1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S (1C)-1H-(2C)-3SFit, fit and fit, though I won't claim this is optimal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted April 7, 2012 Report Share Posted April 7, 2012 Question triggered by other post.Are following sequences forcing and what do they show?: (1C)-1H-(P)-1S A matter of agreement, forcing or not forcing are both popular. (1C)-1H-(2C)-2S (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2S If the first is forcing the second one isn't, and vice versa. I play the first as non-forcing (even though I'm west of Germany) because the chance of having a non-forcing 2S bid is so much higher than the chance of having a forcing one. (1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3S Same as above and how do you play these jumps?:(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S If 1S is non-forcing, then this is natural and forcing. Otherwise it's fit. (1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S (1C)-1H-(2C)-3S Fit Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 7, 2012 Report Share Posted April 7, 2012 What Frances said, except(1C)-1H-(Pas)-2SIf 1S is non-forcing, then this is natural and forcing.I think it's reasonable to just not have a forcing spade bid at all. It's very rare that you have enough to insist on game when you don't have a fit, and when it does happen you may be able to get away with treating Hx as a fit, or just guessing the right game. With less than a game-force, it's usually OK to make a non-foricng 1♠ bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted April 8, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 8, 2012 These are our agreements for some and my own thoughts resulting from it:(1C)-1H-(P)-1SForcing by agreement(1C)-1H-(2C)-2SProposing to my partner that this is non-forcing(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(Pas)-2SEven if a direct 2S is non-forcing, I thought that this one could also be non-forcing?Strong, but non-forcing. With a stronger hand you can now bid 3C or 3S?(1C)-1H-(2C)-DBL(Pas)-2D-(3C)-3SForcing, (1C)-1H-(Pas)-2S (1C)-1H-(Pas)-3S (1C)-1H-(2C)-3SFit-bids then? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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