Jinksy Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 AKQxx K KTx KJxx opposite xx xxxx AQJxx xx The bidding goes PPP to the N hand, then (unopposed) 1S 1N / 3C 3D / 3S 4D PPP We were playing a basic Acol-based system. North said that S had shown a hand with a weak 2 not pure enough for a second seat preempt, and wanted to get out of the auction. South said that if his suit wasn't worth pushing for at the 2 level, it wasn't worth pushing for at the 4 level, and that 4D was therefore a cue agreeing Ss. N said that 3S had just shown extra suit quality/no better bid.S said that with interest in further discussion about denomination, N could have bid 3H.N said that this would show a better H fragment than he had. I submit our dispute to the BBO gods ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 3S looks fine. 4D is silly (why not 3NT - despite the lack of heart stop, we could hope partner has one in his 18+ hand, or that he has something like J10 if that top spot is actually the 9 or 8). Passing 4D is silly in a GF auction, particularly with KTx support opposite what should be a 6-card suit. As for cuebidding, trying for a slam on South's hand is surely very ambitious. A perfect minimum might be AKQJx A xxx Axxx but that's less than 30% (3-2 trump break with King onside and spades no worse than 4-2). So I'm blaming South 95% and North 5%. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 I am curious. What hand could North hold that will produce a slam opposite the South hand and open the bidding 1♠? I think that South is dreaming if he thinks that his hand is good enough to try for a spade slam on this auction. He should just bid 4♠. Quite frankly, 4♠ is no picnic on a heart lead. Odds are that you will go down - possibly several tricks. So 4♦ may be the winning spot. 5♦ has play, but it could easily fail. So, why are we being asked to assign the blame here? Maybe spades were 3-3 and all is well in a spade contract (you only need 3-3 spades and a successful club guess to make 4♠). In that case, I blame the fact that the spades were 3-3 and the clubs were guessable. There were some questionable decisions in the auction, but the final spot may be the best available contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 South should bid 4♠. North should not pass a partscore bid in a GF situation. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jinksy Posted April 5, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 3N surely the best spot? Ideally by N, though given S's need for a 1N response that's surely a pipe dream. But even by S, you seem to have a 50-50 chance of making conditonal on a H lead. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 3S looks fine. 4D is silly (why not 3NT - despite the lack of heart stop, we could hope partner has one in his 18+ hand, or that he has something like J10 if that top spot is actually the 9 or 8). Passing 4D is silly in a GF auction, particularly with KTx support opposite what should be a 6-card suit. As for cuebidding, trying for a slam on South's hand is surely very ambitious. A perfect minimum might be AKQJx A xxx Axxx but that's less than 30% (3-2 trump break with King onside and spades no worse than 4-2). So I'm blaming South 95% and North 5%. ahydraWhile I agree there is some blame for both, dropping a GF auction in 4♦ takes top billing IMO. Certainly more than 5%. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 Maybe spades were 3-3 and all is well in a spade contract (you only need 3-3 spades and a successful club guess to make 4♠). In that case, I blame the fact that the spades were 3-3 and the clubs were guessable. If spades are 3-3 we have ten tricks unless they get a club ruff before we get in. Otherwise, clubs don't matter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 Nobody so far seems concerned about the 3♠ call. I think we need to know a little bit more about any agreements in place re the 3♦ call. It might have been a noise, showing values there and no heart stopper, or it might have been natural....one can't tell just from looking at the hand, since the hand fits both meanings. If 3♦ was intended to be natural, as N eventually took it to be, then surely N should raise diamonds rather than rebid spades. From N's p.o.v., since he chose to bid 3♠ and that, effectively, eliminates 3N and invites 4♠, he should keep diamonds in the picture.....partner won't play him for more diamonds than this if he raises to 4♦. Picture S with x xxxx QJxxxx Ax: unless this systemically is a 2♦ opener.....and many would say it isn't because of some combination of the suit strength and the heart length, then 3♠ invites disaster, since it invites a raise on a stiff. How else would we bid a monster 6=3=1=3 just under a 2♣ opening, or a good 6=4 blacks with good spades? Even if 3♦ were a noise or ambiguous, 4♦ remains clear if N is unwilling to bid 3N. S isn't bidding 3N over 3♠, and N has committed to game, so it's not as if 3♠ is passable. I should clarify: if S has hearts stopped, such that he will bid 3N over 3♠, then his 3♦ bid must show real, long diamonds, and interest in playing in that suit, else he should bid 3N. And if S has that hand (and didn't open), then 5♦ rates to be a fair contract. As for the 4♦ call, it was a gross error...this S hand isn't good enough to try for slam. As for the pass, regardless of what 4♦ was taken to mean, passing was a violation of partnership discipline......you cannot force to game and then pass below game. So I think N made two blunders to S's one, and that makes N mostly at fault. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 If spades are 3-3 we have ten tricks unless they get a club ruff before we get in. Otherwise, clubs don't matter.And if spades are not 3-3 you have virtually no play for 10 tricks. As for those advocating a 3NT contract, good luck with that. You are off a minimum of 5 tricks off the top. If you avoid a heart lead, you need 3-3 spades (in which case you have 10 tricks). The most promising route to success is if you can score the ♥K. I have seen worse. I find this whole thread to be amusing. We are asked to assign the blame in reaching a contract which may be a double-dummy perfect contract. Sure, there are some highly questionable calls, as others have pointed out. But if we are resuling, I think the final contract is fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jinksy Posted April 5, 2012 Author Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 Nobody so far seems concerned about the 3♠ call. I think we need to know a little bit more about any agreements in place re the 3♦ call. Well yes, that was part of the dispute. The two of us rarely play together, so we don't have any agreements. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 Well yes, that was part of the dispute. The two of us rarely play together, so we don't have any agreements.Bear in mind that I also suggested that N should raise 3♦ to 4♦ regardless of what it meant, and I gave my reasoning. So while I sympathize with anyone involved in auctions where the partners are in murky waters, I still maintain that 3♠ was an error, and (imo) a serious one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lalldonn Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 Most people would not agree, but I strongly feel 3♣ is wrong and 2♣ is enough. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 sidenote as a passed hand I would think about bidding 2d at least pard will know where my values are. He sees I did not open 1 or 2d I passed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted April 5, 2012 Report Share Posted April 5, 2012 Most people would not agree, but I strongly feel 3♣ is wrong and 2♣ is enough.I didn't post on that question, but certainly had reservations about 3♣. I think it is very much a point-counter's bid, but, at the same time, very few players could bring themselves to bid 2♣. Actually, my view is that this is closer to a 2N rebid than 2♣, and I think that's the call I would have made at the table. Having said that, I don't think that many forum posters, or real life players, would see 3♣ as such a mistake that it becomes part of the ATB process. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 10, 2012 Report Share Posted April 10, 2012 Simple rule - we dont play 4m, unless we are 100% sure, that 3NT and 5mdoes not make, even with a miracle ... and since we never can be sure, we wont play 4m. In the end, 4m needs to play 2 tricks better than 3S, and whoever said,that 4D showed a weak hand with long diamonds, should ask himself, how such a suit would look like. We can discuss, if 4D is a cue or a choice of game bid, given the limitednature of both hands choice of games makes more sense, but 4m is still forcing. And as a final comment 3C did set up a GF sequence, I just ovrlooked this,I took it, that opener did bid 3S direct. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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