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A bad night at the club - 4


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Finally, we managed to play in a 4-2 fit after some interference:

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sak95hj93dk8cakj4&w=sqhaq8764da7c9752&n=sj3ht2dqj52cqt863&e=st87642hk5dt9643c&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=p1s3hppdp3sppp]399|300[/hv]

 

3 was duly down 3. We play 4 card majors (Acol), so 1 was systemic. Should North bid 4, or should South pull 3? Can we defend for +200?

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I don't want to comment too strongly, since I don't play ACOL, but if south has only promised 4 spades, I find it hard to believe that 3S can be right by north. When my partner makes a takeout double, and I have a 5-card suit, I tend not to bid a 2 card suit...
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For me South's double is made on the understanding that partner will bid assuming they are 5133 plus 1 card. That makes both 3 and 4 reasonable but give North 1354 - where is South going on a 4 response? I suspect it is worth Ave+ or better to defend in 100s here - this is often the case when we have a big balanced hand with 3 cards in their suit.
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IMO, South can foresee a problem and avoid it. His hand is very nice, but if he just counts the number of hearts he holds and partner's failure to call, just staying fixed is probably a good idea.

 

I don't know the advantages of opening 1S vs 1C in ACOL with 4-3-2-4; but it seems to have disadvantages when the strength is this much.

 

If North is, in fact, supposed to bid 4C with the given hand ---is opener supposed to sit with 4-3-4-2, 5-3-4-1? Wouldn't these complications demand the use of 3N after the double as a scramble?

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IMO, South can foresee a problem and avoid it. His hand is very nice, but if he just counts the number of hearts he holds and partner's failure to call, just staying fixed is probably a good idea.

 

I don't know the advantages of opening 1S vs 1C in ACOL with 4-3-2-4; but it seems to have disadvantages when the strength is this much.

 

If North is, in fact, supposed to bid 4C with the given hand ---is opener supposed to sit with 4-3-4-2, 5-3-4-1? Wouldn't these complications demand the use of 3N after the double as a scramble?

 

I used to open 1 with hands like this, but a lot of the good players at my club play it the other way, and I'm following their advice (I wasn't South here, but I would have opened it 1). I think the main advantage is it gets our major into the picture quickly when we have a fit. Unfortunately, as here, it can lead to difficulties when we don't have a fit in the major. I'm not yet completely convinced that 1 is better than 1, but I don't think it's clear-cut.

 

I'm still not sure what my best bid as North is after partner doubles.

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North can't sit for the Dbl with the poor hand held. Since 1 could be bid on 4 s, I think there is no other choice then to bid 4 . If playing s is right then South should have bid s in stead of Dbling.
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Re-opening doubles are meant to show shape, not points. The more opposition trumps and the more points opener holds, the less likely it is that partner has made a trap pass. South should expect partner to respond 4 which doesn't look like the ideal place to be.

 

South should pass.

 

As north, bid 4.

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Clearly there is something systemically wrong here.

 

1) I would NEVER pass out 3 with the South hand.

2) If this hand is to be opened 1 by system, then North cannot bid 3.

3) If North has a right to expect 5 spades in the South hand on this auction, then South cannot open 1.

 

Because of the systemic matters involved in determining the proper opening bid, I cannot assign the blame. Either the 1 opening is wrong, or the 3 call is wrong.

 

By the way, another question that was asked was can you defend for +200. Since East-West have 8 tricks on any defense, the question becomes can North pass the double of 3? I don't see how he can, since South would make the same double if he held:

 

AKQxx

----

Kxxx

Axxx

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