Hanoi5 Posted March 23, 2012 Report Share Posted March 23, 2012 ♠Qxx♥KQJxx♦KQxxx♣--- 1♥-2♦3♦-3NT??? MP's, both red. SAYC. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted March 23, 2012 Report Share Posted March 23, 2012 At MPs I'm tempted not to. Teams I probably would try 4D just in case partner has a hand like KJx Ax Axxxx Jxx, in the worst case we can play 5D. ahydra 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted March 23, 2012 Report Share Posted March 23, 2012 I am not concerned about 3NT. I am concerned about 6♦ (or even a grand). If your only question is whether I would pass 3NT, the answer is no. Never. I would not be surprised to find out that 6♦ is cold and that 3NT has no play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HighLow21 Posted March 23, 2012 Report Share Posted March 23, 2012 18 reasons to take out of 3nt and not one to leave it in. If you think passing 3nt is a potential matchpoint victory, you need your head examined. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HighLow21 Posted March 23, 2012 Report Share Posted March 23, 2012 At MPs I'm tempted not to. Teams I probably would try 4D just in case partner has a hand like KJx Ax Axxxx Jxx, in the worst case we can play 5D. ahydraUmm, 6♦? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted March 23, 2012 Report Share Posted March 23, 2012 Am literally closer to blasting 6D than passing 3N. If the question is what is the best way to move past 3N, I dont know. 4D and 4S are good bids imo. I thint was wrong to bid a NF 3d. I have so much potential here. I would have tried 4c over 2D as a splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cthulhu D Posted March 24, 2012 Report Share Posted March 24, 2012 It seems ill defined what pulling to 4C is here, but the best treatment seems to be it's a splinter if it's a new suit or weak scramble if you're rebidding a suit someone has already bid. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted March 24, 2012 Report Share Posted March 24, 2012 It seems ill defined what pulling to 4C is here, but the best treatment seems to be it's a splinter if it's a new suit or weak scramble if you're rebidding a suit someone has already bid.Neither of those seems very useful to me. If opener had a shortage, he would have splintered on the previous round. With a weak hand and no great fit he would pass 3NT. With a weak hand, a good fit, and a hand that didn't want to play 3NT, he would bid game in the suit. In the given sequence, I'd play 4♣ as just a cue-bid. If clubs were responder's suit, I'd play is as a slam try, inviting cue-bidding. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted March 25, 2012 Report Share Posted March 25, 2012 In the given sequence, I'd play 4♣ as just a cue-bid. If clubs were responder's suit, I'd play is as a slam try, inviting cue-bidding. I play pulling to partner's minor as RKCB. On this hand it doesn't work (not that I'm saying I would choose it anyway) as I have a void, but do you think that it is a poor agreement in general? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yu18772 Posted March 25, 2012 Report Share Posted March 25, 2012 Yes - 4♦/♣ - depends on partner (hoping him to figure out).The question why did I bid 3♦ and not splinter? http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gifYu 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted March 25, 2012 Report Share Posted March 25, 2012 I thint was wrong to bid a NF 3d. Since they are playing SAYC, 3♦ was not NF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted March 25, 2012 Report Share Posted March 25, 2012 I play pulling to partner's minor as RKCB. On this hand it doesn't work (not that I'm saying I would choose it anyway) as I have a void, but do you think that it is a poor agreement in general?I always think low-level ace-asking agreements are bad, because a natural meaning is more useful. In this sequence as opener, a natural 4D bid lets you bid a hand like Ax AQJxx KQxx xx sensibly: you can bid 4D, simultaneously denying a club control and inviting a cue-bid in a major. If partner bids 4♥ over that, you will know that he has both a club control and ♥K. Now you're well-placed to use Keycard, because you know what you're goung to do opposite any reply. If, instead, he bids 4♠, you know that we're missing ♥K, so slam will require the right cards from him - eg Kxx xx Axxxx AQx - so you bid 5♦ (or maybe a last-train 5♣) and leave it up to him. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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