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5-5 Minors - rebid?


  

18 members have voted

  1. 1. What's your rebid?

    • 2 Clubs
      14
    • 3 Clubs
      3
    • Something else
      1


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Vulnerable against not, you pick up in 3rd 1st seat a nice 17 count. You open 1 and partner responds 1, what's your rebid?

 

[hv=pc=n&e=s7ha5daqj82caq742&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp]133|200[/hv]

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2. partner should make a false preference to 2 with a non-minimum and 1 less diamond than club (assuming its right to give preference instead of rebidding spades). I can then bid 3, which should be a 5-5 hand in the minors which would have jump shifted with (up to) another king in playing strength.
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Interesting. One of those hands that I would auto-jump shift after 1-1 but after 1 perhaps 2 is enough (though I would still jump at teams since my partnership is not forced to game and has a good system over jump-shifts).
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Vulnerable against not, you pick up in 3rd seat a nice 17 count. You open 1 and partner responds 1, what's your rebid?

 

[hv=pc=n&e=s7ha5daqj82caq742&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp]133|200[/hv]

 

Your bidding sequence is wrong. It says in 3rd seat you pick up a nice 17 count. By inference you state that partner is already a passed hand. For that reason alone, my next bid is 2. If partner was an unpassed hand, I would venture 3.

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I voted “something else” here. With 5-5 in the minors and 14-18 HCP, I open 2NT telling partner that I have no real interest in playing anywhere else except in a minor.

 

This is what my continuation bidding structure looks like with these sorts of hands:

a) Pass = both majors and no fit in the minors. If 2NT makes, you score 120 where the rest of the field scores 110 or minus 50.

b) 3m = suit preference, signoff

c) 3M = 6-card suit, inviting 4M if opener has 2-card support

d) 3NT = to play, both majors plus values

e) 4m = Minorwood for the suit bid, slam interest

f) 4M = to play, 7-card suit plus some values

g) 5m = to play, distributional fit, cross-ruff potential

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Your bidding sequence is wrong. It says in 3rd seat you pick up a nice 17 count. By inference you state that partner is already a passed hand. For that reason alone, my next bid is 2. If partner was an unpassed hand, I would venture 3.

 

Sorry, the diagram was right (1st seat opener).

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At the table I chose 2.

 

What should partner bid now if he has:

 

[hv=pc=n&w=sak983hjt98d7ck96&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp2cp]133|200[/hv]

 

What if he has:

 

[hv=pc=n&w=sak983hj432d7ck96&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp2cp]133|200[/hv]

 

Our agreement is that 4th suit is game forcing.

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I would understand the overbid of 2 but I would rate 2 NT as obvious.

With both hands visible, I would be able to reach 6 . :)

But at the table, I guess I had played 3 Nt like most others with these hands...

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At the table I chose 2.

 

What should partner bid now if he has:

 

[hv=pc=n&w=sak983hjt98d7ck96&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp2cp]133|200[/hv]

 

What if he has:

 

[hv=pc=n&w=sak983hj432d7ck96&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp2cp]133|200[/hv]

 

Our agreement is that 4th suit is game forcing.

3N with the first, 2N with the second.

 

Over 3N I would bid 4 every day of the week at teams, trickier problem at pairs.

 

If 3 is forcing over 2N I would bid it (I play a non GF 2 which I would probably bid and not sure what if any difference this makes).

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My partner chose 2, then unfortunately passed 3 (clearly wrong). I wasn't certain our other bids were optimal though. I made 11 tricks in 3, while the field were making 3NT. The full hand:

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sqt65hq43dkt964cj&w=sak983hjt98d7ck96&n=sj42hk762d53ct853&e=s7ha5daqj82caq742&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1dp1sp2cp2hp3cpp(Oops%21)p]399|300[/hv]

 

6 isn't makeable (double dummy), but I'd have preferred to try than to stop in 3. :)

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My partner chose 2, then unfortunately passed 3 (clearly wrong). I wasn't certain our other bids were optimal though. I made 11 tricks in 3, while the field were making 3NT. The full hand:

Your partner doesn't play 2 FG, I might pass 3 too, where do you want to be opposite x, xx, KQJxx, Axxxx which is what you might have shown if 2 wasn't GF.

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