luckyloser Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 MPs both pairs play SAYC, both red ♠xx♥Axxxx♦Axxx♣Ax you open 1♥, LHO bids 1♠, P passes (he could have bid a new suit nonforcing) and RHO passes. do you reopen with a DBL or 2♦ or sell out? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 X Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 This would be (slightly) more interesting with the minor suits reversed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 ugh. anything could be right, anything could be wrong. I'll try 2D, which will cover most of partner's hands unless he has some ugly 4126 or such (but then he might have tried 1NT). Let me guess, this is where I find out the 1S bidder has a monster hand and they can make 4. ahydra 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 Let me guess, this is where I find out the 1S bidder has a monster hand and they can make 4. One of the dangers of using forums as a learning tool is that you get into "forum mentality" for decisions. You start to expect the unexpected on every hand. Here the glass does not have to be half empty, partner could just as easily be sitting there with KQJ9x/x/Kxx/Kxxx. Worrying about the opponents getting to game looking at 3 bullets and with a PH on the right is not winning bridge imho. Double is better than 2♦ because we can convert to 2♦ if partner comes back with clubs and it is more flexible. This is why it would be a better hand (to post) with the minors reversed. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 I agree with double, but I wouldn't convert 2♣ to 2♦. Partner probably has at least four spades, so the chance that he's 4-4 in the minors is low, and with 2-4 he would often bid 2♥. I can't see anything in the diamond suit to make me want to play a 4-3 fit, whereas my aces will be quite useful in a 5-2 club fit. To avoid this problem, I like to play 1NT in reply to the double as scrambling. With most hands that want to bid a natural 1NT I'd have bid it one round earlier. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 X. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 Double, not close. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 One of the dangers of using forums as a learning tool is that you get into "forum mentality" for decisions. You start to expect the unexpected on every hand. Here the glass does not have to be half empty, partner could just as easily be sitting there with KQJ9x/x/Kxx/Kxxx. Worrying about the opponents getting to game looking at 3 bullets and with a PH on the right is not winning bridge imho. Double is better than 2♦ because we can convert to 2♦ if partner comes back with clubs and it is more flexible. This is why it would be a better hand (to post) with the minors reversed. Wouldn't that hand just bid 3NT? Also, it'd be silly to pass with that much opposite, surely, unless you expect opener to re-open any minimum hand. Fair enough re X vs 2D. I guess I was in 4cM mindset where, after X, partner would not place me with 5 hearts. Hence I have to bid 2D to show I have 5 hearts. (This is only important because it's MPs - if partner had say a 2=3=4=4, or even 3=2=4=4, then he should prefer the major, 2H, rather than 2C.) Edit: additionally the X normally shows a better than minimum hand. ahydra 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 I agree with double, but I wouldn't convert 2♣ to 2♦. Partner probably has at least four spades, so the chance that he's 4-4 in the minors is low, and with 2-4 he would often bid 2♥. I can't see anything in the diamond suit to make me want to play a 4-3 fit, whereas my aces will be quite useful in a 5-2 club fit. To avoid this problem, I like to play 1NT in reply to the double as scrambling. With most hands that want to bid a natural 1NT I'd have bid it one round earlier.Highly agree with the 1st paragraph, and respectfully disagree with the 2nd. Either way, this is a reopening double ---and, I do that less frequently than a lot of forum members. IMO:1H (1S) P (P)X (P) ?...a direct 1NT would have shown a constructive responding hand; so 1NT after the reopening double is frequently needed with less in this situation. I would like it to be scrambling when responder has a scrambling hand with too little to have neg doubled at first opportunity; I would like it to be natural and weak if responder had that hand. Since it sounds as if partner has four spades on the auction, I believe natural and less than 7-HCP is more frequent than scrambling with less than 6-HCP and less than 4S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 Edit: additionally the X normally shows a better than minimum hand.It might in your 4cM style, and whether you use wk NT might also be a factor. But, for 5cM people this is not true. The reopening double is semi automatic with any respectable minimum containing less than 3 spades, and a new-suit reopening usually contains 5 of that suit. Even though the OP implied negative freebids, partner could still have a five-card minor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lalldonn Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 Double seems normal for me. I understand pass. I do not understand 2♦. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 It might in your 4cM style, and whether you use wk NT might also be a factor. But, for 5cM people this is not true. The reopening double is semi automatic with any respectable minimum containing less than 3 spades, and a new-suit reopening usually contains 5 of that suit. Even though the OP implied negative freebids, partner could still have a five-card minor. Yes, weak NT is a factor here. I guess in SAYC if opener has a rubbishy weak NT he can pass. But, what does he do with a respectable 3541? ahydra 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 This would be (slightly) more interesting with the minor suits reversed. Why? Are you suggesting you are bidding 2♦ over 2♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
akhare Posted March 9, 2012 Report Share Posted March 9, 2012 X, catering to a trap P by pass and P any other response 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 10, 2012 Report Share Posted March 10, 2012 Yes, weak NT is a factor here. I guess in SAYC if opener has a rubbishy weak NT he can pass. But, what does he do with a respectable 3541? ahydraDefinition of "respectable" would be in order, here. Your 3 cards in spades drastically reduces the probability that pard was trapping in spades, and he took no action. "Respectable" would have to be about 17+ to make me move. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted March 10, 2012 Report Share Posted March 10, 2012 I am still probably doubling as it seems like normal action but recently it seems to me more bad things comes from it than good ones.Partner could have bid 5card suit at 2level, he didn't. He doesn't have heart support either and is apparently too weak for 1NT call.It seems the only case when we win is when he was trapping which is unlikely, much more likely is some 5hcp with 4-2-3-4/5-2-3-3 distribution after which we either play something hopeless or let them improve their contract. Actually I am so convinced by my own reasoning here that I really want to pass :) (btw there were some great post by Fred about reopening the bidding and why you sometimes should pass in seemingly reopenable spots; anybody has a link by any chance ?) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted March 10, 2012 Report Share Posted March 10, 2012 First, I trust partner made a good decision to pass.Second, do I have enough stuff/shape to beg him to reconsider? NO. PASS. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted March 10, 2012 Report Share Posted March 10, 2012 If you play the Neg-DBL "convention", the re-opening DBL is part of it .... practically automatic . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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