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Balancing


Hanoi5

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1D opening: Whatever bid you have that demands spades as trumps and asks partner for some help. At IMP's, I would probably double first then bid 3. At MP's, I would probably jump it to 2 and if partner cannot advance, the game is probably borderline at best.

 

1NT opening: Here it is much more likely that LHO has too many aces for game to make. I'm looking at 16 HCP and LHO claims to have 15-17, assuming I understand the 1NT bid correctly. Partner will turn up with 1 or 0 aces about 95% of the time. If it is 0 game is hopeless; if it is 1, I somehow have to avoid losing an additional heart. I would bid 2S and compete to 3S, but then give up. I am prepared to double any NT competition by the opening side, now that partner knows what to lead.

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I don't much like hands with lots of hcp and no aces. Both double then 1 over 1 and an immediate 2 seem like underbids, while double then a jump in spades feels like an overbid. I can't recall ever seeing a reopening 3 hand before....I suppose it should look something like this, since playing it as preemptive makes no sense. Let's see if partner is on the same wavelength...it is only mps anyway...so 3 after the 1 opening.

 

I'm more comfortable that 3 shows this kind of hand when they open 1N, but at the same time, game seems less likely....the problem is that my cards are so inflexible. And again, it is mps, so I will just bid 2, assuming that 2 is available. I'd bid 3 at imps.

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I am fine with just 2S over 1D, but I seem to have stronger standards for 4th seat openings and jumps than most do.

 

After 1NT I like my hand somewhat less, and am willing to not jump. I have 7 tricks in my own hand if the HA is behind me, and really don't want pard to bounce me to game with, say, the SA and nothing else.

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1 on the first and 3 next round if there is one. An immediate 3 would be ideal if it shows this hand but I'd rather not put partner to the test if we haven't discussed it.

 

Immediate 3 on the second because nothing else is remotely close to describing what I have.

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3 on both seems obvious. What am I missing?

The fact that the second auction (1NT opened) strongly suggests that game is unlikely, while on the first auction, game will be there quite often.

 

Another way of thinking about it is this... on the first auction, it is quite common that partner had no convenient bid in first seat, but plenty of strength. Thus we jump the bidding to let him know we are QUITE strong and don't need much to make a game. Partner could be dead broke, but it is extremely unlikely, and he could conceivably have an opening bid.

 

In the second auction, partner will have, on average, about 4HCP. Sometimes he will have 0. He will never have 10 points. If you were to jump to 3 he very well might put you in game with spade support, an ace, and out, and you do not want that.

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In the second auction, partner will have, on average, about 4HCP. Sometimes he will have 0. He will never have 10 points. If you were to jump to 3 he very well might put you in game with spade support, an ace, and out, and you do not want that.

Ax doubleton, support and out would be enough for game. But I doubt partner would normally raise to 4 with an Ace, support and out. Surely they're not expecting us to have 9 tricks in our own hand :o

 

Partner having 0 HCP is very unlikely - assuming 15-17 1NT, opener would need to have an absolute max otherwise responder has a bid. Surely if we bid 2 (assuming it is natural, single-suiter), partner will pass on far too many hands where we can make 4, because 2 could be a heck of a lot weaker than the hand we have, and is usually just attempting to buy the contract.

 

Also, 2 allows opener to make a take-out double which you probably don't want.

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