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To Slam Or Not To Slam


luckyloser

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Your hand:

 

KQJxx

-

AJxx

Qxxx

 

 

you open 1 and the bidding goes (opps silent):

 

1 - 2NT (4 card supp, gameforce, maybe slam)

3(sing or void) - 4(cue)

4 - 4 NT

???

 

partner has shown a strong raise with 4-card support and a control. he has denied the A (no cue after 4) and has slam interest; he now asks for Aces (roman keycard), it seems Aces are his main concern now.

your correct bid now is 5, showing 2 Aces (A and the trump K) plus the trump Q (you haven´t agreed upon how to show a void). partner knows you are short in but not that you are void.

 

your 4NT answers show (5 Aces): 03,14,2,2+Q

 

do you bid 5 or something else and why?

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Cyber.... You sure have a lot of bids to show 2 key cards + void, etc.

 

So, how do you show 1 key card + void, etc ?

We don't, but in many cases we already showed the void earlier. We play things like specifically void splinters as responses to 1suit.

 

I've never liked showing a void and only 1 keycard committing you to 6 as it can be a good way to get to 6 off 2 aces when partner needed 2 aces for a slam, and has the ace opposite your void.

 

I don't know what 4 is here for opener over 2N, but would be void for us (although it would show a bit more than we have on this hand).

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