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Bid with nothing?


bd71

  

34 members have voted

  1. 1. My call is:

    • Pass
      2
    • 2S
      2
    • 3S
      15
    • 4S
      14
    • Something else
      1


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Seems like an easy 4 to me. Occasionally partner has a decent hand for his overcall. If all he has is A K x x x and junk, I'd expect the opponents to have a slam somewhere.
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If you bid 4 on this, opponents shouldn't even bother looking at their hands before doubling and collecting 500 80% of the time. When your 4 call keeps them out of slam they will collect 800 or more and a top anyway. Maybe one time in twenty they weren't making 4 so it loses again. To me the real choice is between a call like 3 which at least gives them a guess they will sometimes get wrong, or out of the box calls like 1nt or even 2. I don't really expect any of these calls to work, but they might. 4 just concedes them a good result.
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If you bid 4 on this, opponents shouldn't even bother looking at their hands before doubling and collecting 500 80% of the time. When your 4 call keeps them out of slam they will collect 800 or more and a top anyway. Maybe one time in twenty they weren't making 4 so it loses again. To me the real choice is between a call like 3 which at least gives them a guess they will sometimes get wrong, or out of the box calls like 1nt or even 2. I don't really expect any of these calls to work, but they might. 4 just concedes them a good result.

 

My choices were between pass and support later, bid 2 and if I can 3 next round, or to punt 3 now. I don't have 4 as an option for the reasons bftboy says.

 

I decided on 3 now, I like 2 fnj or 3 as a fit jump but usually it's done as lead direction (as well as allowing partner know how high to go) and I have a terrible suit and pre-emption is what I needed.

 

I love the discussion of 1nt by Ken & others it's good stuff.

Ken, what do you say in the Alert?

Do you have a comprehensive set of system notes, is it in there?

Does your partner also bid 1nt here with these type of hands?

 

If not I worry about the legalities of having something that only 1 player does. If you both do it I may not agree on it (the methods not your logic of them) but if alerted and explained properly I don't think it's an issue.

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Some of you seem to me to be assuming that the only reason for a "psychic" is to mislead the opponents and thereby to cause problems. If you notice, I did not call the 1NT bid a psychic, for a reason. I called it a weird bid.

 

My partner (and I) are ethically as pure as the driven snow in follow ups to such weirdness and I think it has a place in the game for comedy relief, especially Matchpoints. Just know your ethical obligations or suffer the wrath of the federales.

 

I've had a few performed on me by some truly World Class players that all resulted in a chuckle and I was pleased that they viewed myself and my pard as being able to take a joke regardless of the outcome. The follow up auctions were always spot on ethics wise by the "straight man" from their side.

 

I posted one a while back where it went 3 - p - 3 to me and I had a moose with KQT9xx of hearts in it and salvaged an average but should have found the slam. All my rho tried to do was buy the hand in 4 doubled instead of 5 and with proper ethics I consider it a legitimate tactic.

 

That doesn't require an alert or my pard has to alert all of mine with "He's weird".

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I think there are only 2 possible calls - pass and 4S. Playing against a top pair, pass is probably best. Any S raise will allow them to judge their fit and make it easy to bid a slam. 4S seems like a good bid against weak players.

 

So this comes closest to my reasoning ATT, where I did pass (although we weren't playing against anything close to a "top pair").

 

The pass may indeed have helped contribute to their missing a slam (4H+3)..although since I don't have the hands I can't fully assess how much was that vs. simple poor bidding. Spades were 3-0.

 

Of course, one good result does not make it right and it seems like this approach is swimming against the tide of opinion here.

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Finally, if your partnership bids 1N in this auction with sufficient frequency to warrant an alert, may I suggest that you are playing a ridiculous system. 1N means 'either I have whatever 1N shows for normal people....say about 10 hcp and stoppers in the opps suit and no primary spade support, or I have a preemptive raise where I want to throw my opps off track'.

 

Or, it could be defined as a "normal out of context" 1NT response, showing many potential hand types similar to what you show after a 1 opening.

 

When partner opens 1, I play that 1NT shows (1) a balanced hand, (2) a bust spade raise, or (3) any distribution imagineable with iinsufficient values to bid at the two-level.

 

When partner overcalls 1, in some partnerships I play (and alert) that 1NT shows (1) a balanced hand, (2) a bust spade raise, or (3) any distribution imagineable with insufficient values to bid at the two-level.

 

If 1NT is not bid as a psychic, meant to confuse and throw off the opponents after 1-P-1NT, despite holding any number of crazy, unbalanced hands, possibly with a spade fit, then you might see that 1Nt can also be bid in this sequence for similar reasons?

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When partner overcalls 1, in some partnerships I play (and alert) that 1NT shows (1) a balanced hand, (2) a bust spade raise, or (3) any distribution imagineable with insufficient values to bid at the two-level.

 

Nowhere in your original post:

If I am totally honest, I have to admit that at the table I would bid 1NT. With a ten-fit in boss spades, five cards in the unbid suit, and a yarb, vulnerable against not, this deal is going to result in a crazy auction. So, I will make a crazy bid.

 

This may well work out wonderfully, if Opener raises hearts and partner, as expected, has four hearts, as he may well smell a rat somewhere and tread with caution. Better, the opponents might get all screwed up somehow.

was there any mention of having such a special agreement. Indeed the "crazy bid" term strongly suggests that you are making this bid with normal agreements about it. If you have an agreement to bid 1NT on hands such as this then obviously it is not a psyche; if you bid 1NT with a hand like this with standard agreements then it is a psyche. The 2 bid that I threw out as a wild possibility would also be a psyche and has the same aims as your 1NT.

 

I think this auction is completely different from the one in Frances' thread because here we either bid to the limit or we go low (Pass, 1NT, 2, 2 have all been suggested for this) and then shut up hoping the opponents misguess. Starting with a psyche and then jumping to 3 or 4 later would be really bad. You either do one thing or the other. I still believe it depends who your opponents are as to which strategy is best.

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Nowhere in your original post:

 

was there any mention of having such a special agreement. Indeed the "crazy bid" term strongly suggests that you are making this bid with normal agreements about it. If you have an agreement to bid 1NT on hands such as this then obviously it is not a psyche; if you bid 1NT with a hand like this with standard agreements then it is a psyche. The 2 bid that I threw out as a wild possibility would also be a psyche and has the same aims as your 1NT.

 

I think this auction is completely different from the one in Frances' thread because here we either bid to the limit or we go low (Pass, 1NT, 2, 2 have all been suggested for this) and then shut up hoping the opponents misguess. Starting with a psyche and then jumping to 3 or 4 later would be really bad. You either do one thing or the other. I still believe it depends who your opponents are as to which strategy is best.

 

Obviously, from the context of what I have written in all of the pasts in this thread, I play with different partners from time to time.

 

In those partnerships where this sequence is discussed and agreed to play this special method, 1NT is agreed to be as described.

 

In some others, 1NT is Suit/Lead (showing something in clubs).

 

In others, there is no agreement, in which case I might bid 1NT anyway, as if Option #1, because I notice when playing the AGREED option #1 that the opponent's structural agreements are thrown off due to expectations being off.

 

Thus, when I responded as to what I would do in the context of a non-agreement partnership, I mentioned the "undiscussed 1NT" as my call because I would probably do that in practice, knowing from the Option #1 agreement partnerships how that messes up the structural defaults for the opponents.

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Or, it could be defined as a "normal out of context" 1NT response...

 

(snip)

 

When partner overcalls 1, in some partnerships I play (and alert) that 1NT shows (1) a balanced hand, (2) a bust spade raise, or (3) any distribution imagineable with insufficient values to bid at the two-level.

 

If 1NT is not bid as a psychic... (snip)

 

If I responded 1N to an opening spade bid with 5 spades and no points, I would consider that a psychic.

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A lot has already been said about this hand. Can we see whose arguments were better?

 

bd71 can you kindly post the full hand?

The arguments are still available - the posts in this thread have not been erased yet. You can read them and decide for yourself. The full hand has nothing to do with whose arguments were better, and only a little to do with which action is better.

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If I responded 1N to an opening spade bid with 5 spades and no points, I would consider that a psychic.

What?!?!?

 

So, with xxxxx x xxxxx xx, red on white, if partner opens 1, you pass? I mean, if 3 is a limti raise (let's say), 4 a sick bid (to some like me), and 1NT forcing with potentially a bust hand but support (a fairly normal treatment), then the lack of 6 HCP means that bidding at all with this hand is a psychic?

 

I don't live in your world.

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What?!?!?

 

So, with xxxxx x xxxxx xx, red on white, if partner opens 1, you pass? I mean, if 3 is a limti raise (let's say), 4 a sick bid (to some like me), and 1NT forcing with potentially a bust hand but support (a fairly normal treatment), then the lack of 6 HCP means that bidding at all with this hand is a psychic?

 

I don't live in your world.

 

In my world we read posts a bit more carefully, before releasing the ?!?!?!'s.

 

I said the call was a psychic. I did not say I wouldn't make the 1N call.

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If you bid 4 on this, opponents shouldn't even bother looking at their hands before doubling and collecting 500 80% of the time. When your 4 call keeps them out of slam they will collect 800 or more and a top anyway. Maybe one time in twenty they weren't making 4 so it loses again. To me the real choice is between a call like 3 which at least gives them a guess they will sometimes get wrong, or out of the box calls like 1nt or even 2. I don't really expect any of these calls to work, but they might. 4 just concedes them a good result.

 

This kind of thinking is very wrong imo.

 

Sometimes when you bid 4S you have enough that you expect to make it a goodly proportion of the time : Kxxxx x Axxxx xx, for example. Sometimes you do not expect to make it, like here. But your opponents have imperfect knowledge. Sometimes when you bid 4S here your partner has extras anyway, and it will be cold. Sometimes the opponents have lots of values, but neither knows the other has extra strength.

 

Just because I bid 4S on this hand does not indicate that it is typical of a vul vs not 4S bid. I am attempting to exploit their expectation of what a "normal" 4S bid looks like. In this case they will not be so quick to double without trump tricks, as its rare to bid 4S vul vs not as a preempt, without some reasonable hope of making.

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I'm not sure how the point became one of nomenclature, but for Ken's benefit: if 1NT is systemically natural, and you bid it with this hand, it's a psych; if 1NT is systemically either natural or a weak raise, and you bid it with this hand, it's not a psych.
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I am somewhat surprised that the votes are 13 to 10 for 3S vs 4S. Would have thought more like 19 to 4.

 

Yes, I can see the actual count. But, (at least) one of those 14 would have bid 4 at the table.

 

I am not surprised, I think it's a close decision and could be swayed by a lot of factors. This is the type of decision where you could go either way based on who your opps are, who your partner is, table feel, etc.

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