Antrax Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 Matchpoints, unfaouvrable. (P)-P-1♣ (3+)♠AQxx♥AQ♦KJ9♣8xxx 1NT? 1S? pass and wait for partner to reopen? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yu18772 Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 I would not consider 1S, both other options are valid choice imo. If I bid 1NT and partner transfers to ♥ and then bids 2NT or 3NT (showing only 5 of them) I will choose to play the 5-2 heart fit. Yu http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gif 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1 NT stands out. 1 ♣ did not even promisses five of them...1 Spade would be fine with an unbalanced hand.Pass would never occur to me. You can never ever show this hand type later if you pass now. Okay never ever is not right. If partner bids freely, you have no problem. But if he is strong enough to bid after you passed, you will have no problems anyway. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 If you can pull off a confident 1N, then bid 1N. This will make all subsequent bidding easier, and if you bid with confidence noone respects their partner's club bids enough to actually lead them (this is only half true, but you still have decent odds) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1S for me, 8xxx is too weak, it is far different from even Txxx. They are more likely to respect the 1C opener when it is made in third seat (presumably it is a lead director if light). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 I would pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antrax Posted February 15, 2012 Author Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 Since I passed, I can even tell you how it continues:(p)-p-(1♣]-p(1♦)-x-(2♦) Now what? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Yu18772 Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 partner doubled as passed hand showing both majors I presume - 4♠ or 3♣ (cue) and correct any number of ♥ to ♠ look ok to me. Yu http://www.bridgebase.com/forums/public/style_emoticons/default/rolleyes.gif 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1NT>1♠>pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1♠ for me. This is going to play badly in 1NT. They usually have clubs anyway. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wyman Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 I would overcall 1S, but I don't have a strong anti-1N sentiment. I'd prefer to have a better spot than the 8, though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 The more clubs they can run, the less likely we'll actually play in NT or that they will lead clubs. If RHO has 5 or 6 clubs, then my partner and his combine to have only 3 or 4. One of them will have a major that either they are tempted to lead, or which they can use our systems (transfers, stayman) to play in. That being said, while I think 1N is the percentage action, I wouldn't criticize a partner who chose to do something different with this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 I like 1 NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1nt for me. Playing transfers and stayman which could be on garbage along with TO doubles if they compete we are going to land in our chosen best contract with the exception of pard blasting 3nt on ♦ tricks when they can run 5 clubs. If they can only run 4 we are still in with a chance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 I would pass. I am quite surprised. I think it will be hard to describe our hand if we start with pass and we are at risk of missing a game. If we have a game it's 4S or 3N and I think 1S will be a good start in either case, and we are at serious risk of never finding it if we pass. If we have a partial, I doubt 1S will be a terrible start, it will induce partner to compete/bid. If we were r/r I could maybe see pass since it's MP, but I think it's too pessimistic when they're white, letting them declare might be really bad. Are you just trying to avoid -200? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 Since I passed, I can even tell you how it continues:(p)-p-(1♣]-p(1♦)-x-(2♦) Now what?How nice on this occasion. So, we bid 4S. But, that doesn't make my pass of 1C a good thing; it just makes it irrelevant this time. We don't look for something to do directly on every hand and are quite willing to pass 1m with balanced 12, 13, 14's. But, this one is too much. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
S2000magic Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1NT for me. Stoppers, schmoppers. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 1NT for me. Stoppers, schmoppers.ditto....As our inimitable KenRexford might say: " Stoppers are for losers " . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted February 15, 2012 Report Share Posted February 15, 2012 Actually stoppers are to stop their winners. But this one is still a toss-up between 1S and 1N, IMO. Each is a bit flawed, but u must choose one of them because pass is doubly flawed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted February 16, 2012 Report Share Posted February 16, 2012 1S for me. I don't think my club 8 will be a stopper. Pass is weak. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cthulhu D Posted February 16, 2012 Report Share Posted February 16, 2012 IANAE: I like double = 15+ bal or semi bal here, you don't need to promise a stopper like you 'need' to with a natural 1NT overcall. That said, I'd overcall 1NT here playing a 'normal' overcall system. I can see 1S though but you feel a bit heavy for that call. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antrax Posted February 16, 2012 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2012 For those who think I'm advocating a pass because it worked on this hand: my bid after the double was 3♠ which I thought should be positive "enough" if we have a game. Partner passed and it was down 1 - he had a weak 4=5=2=2, you lose two clubs, a heart and a spade, and one or two diamonds, depending if you guess right. So, not boasting, really curious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted February 16, 2012 Report Share Posted February 16, 2012 I am quite surprised. I think it will be hard to describe our hand if we start with pass and we are at risk of missing a game. If we have a game it's 4S or 3N and I think 1S will be a good start in either case, and we are at serious risk of never finding it if we pass. If we have a partial, I doubt 1S will be a terrible start, it will induce partner to compete/bid. I don't like overcalling on a so-so 4-card suit, especially when vulnerable. Partner is a passed hand and the 1C opening on our right hand side also looks bad. I don't think that 3NT is likely, certainly not 3NT from our side. If the oppponents bid hearts I can make a takeout double. If not (and partner doesn't bid), then it is not clear to me that we are better off bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted February 16, 2012 Report Share Posted February 16, 2012 I'm tempted to X. I get lucky here if the auction is the same as if you pass, since opposite the responsive X you can just bid 4S. ahydra 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted February 16, 2012 Report Share Posted February 16, 2012 For those who think I'm advocating a pass because it worked on this hand: my bid after the double was 3♠ which I thought should be positive "enough" if we have a game. Partner passed and it was down 1 - he had a weak 4=5=2=2, you lose two clubs, a heart and a spade, and one or two diamonds, depending if you guess right. So, not boasting, really curious. After P - (1♣) - P - (1♦) we have both double and 1NT available to show the majors; depending on agreements possibly also one or both of 2♣ and 2♦ too. One of these should show a good hand and the other should show a less good hand but with some shape. Normal is to play double as the better hand and 1NT shapely but it is perfectly possible to invert the two. If partner really had a weak 4522 hand then they misbid unless such an inversion was in place. The 4♠ bidders (and I would have bid this too) are assuming double has its normal meaning here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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