Bid this

[dickiegera]

[hv=pc=n&s=sa93ha8dt6cakq976&n=skqj762hqj6daq7c8&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp2c2d2sp3dd3np4n]266|200[/hv]

 

Do you agree with bidding to this point?

4NT was passed. Making 6. 6♠ making 7 is the place to be.

Is 3♦ the better bid or should 3♠ be bid first?

 

Also is 3NT the best bid or what would double show?

 

Thank you

[ArtK78]

[hv=pc=n&s=sa93ha8dt6cakq976&n=skqj762hqj6daq7c8&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp2c2d2sp3dd3np4n]266|200[/hv]

 

Do you agree with bidding to this point?

4NT was passed. Making 6. 6♠ making 7 is the place to be.

Is 3♦ the better bid or should 3♠ be bid first?

 

Also is 3NT the best bid or what would double show?

 

Thank you

I do not like the 3♦ bid. 3♠ is much clearer. You didn't specify whether 2♣ was forcing to game or not. Clearly, 3♠ is forcing.

 

When opener cue bids 4♦, responder can key card and bid the grand. 7♠ making 7 is better than 6♠ making 7. Responder can count 5 spades, 5 clubs (with the aid of one club ruff, if needed) and 2 red aces. Either a second trick in either red suit or a 6th trick in either spades or clubs gives you 13. Partner should have 6 spades for his free 2♠ bid, so I bid the grand.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

assuming 2C to be GF, 3S is clearly better than 3D,

at one point in time you should show the fit.

North was asked, if he had a diamond stopper, he has

one, hence he showes it, i.e. 3NT.

 

4NT is what? 6S is clearly the bid, you have to make,

after you generated the mess.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[phil_20686]

If I bid 3S, I will be badly placed if partner bids 4S, obviously I have enough for slam but how to I find out about the diamond control?

 

If I bid 3D, and partner shows a diamond stop, I have no way to bid key card to find out if grand is good.

 

If I bid 3C, partner will likely just bid 3N, and I have no way to agree spades.

 

What about 4C? Partner would not be keen to bid 2S on a Q high suit, so if we are prepared to give him the space K on faith, then 4c seems like a good bid, planning to correct clubs to spades at the appropriate time.

 

I think that might bebest, I will assume partners spades are good enough to be playable in 7 if he has the diamond ace, so I will bid 4C and wait for a red suit cue (demanded) if he has no diamond control, and bids 4h, I will bid 4S, which is to play for me (though usually showing Hx). If partner bids 5c over this I will bid 5S, he should get the message and I expect the five level to be safe. In the more common scenario that he has a diamond control, I will bid keycard, and then 5N, partner, if he thinks the spades are running opposite the ace, will bid grand in clubs, and I will correct to spades.

[kenrexford]

The 3♦-P-3NT sequence did not even establish a diamond control. Opener might have Q-J-x-x in diamonds, for instance. So, I agree with the others, that establishing the fit is best.

 

A good question, however, is the meaning of this sequence:

 

1♠-(P)-2♣-(2♦)

2♠-(P)-3♦-(P)

3NT-(P)-4♦?

 

If your concern is in forcing partner to tell you about the diamond control before getting into some convoluted 5-level control bidding potential disaster, and you are afraid that partner will bid 4♠ after 3♠ because he has second-round diamond control with no Aces, then 3♦...4♦ might be the ticket.

[mike777]

[hv=pc=n&s=sa93ha8dt6cakq976&n=skqj762hqj6daq7c8&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp2c2d2sp3dd3np4n]266|200[/hv]

 

Do you agree with bidding to this point?

4NT was passed. Making 6. 6♠ making 7 is the place to be.

Is 3♦ the better bid or should 3♠ be bid first?

 

Also is 3NT the best bid or what would double show?

 

Thank you

 

 

seems like an easy 3s,not 3d, slam try in spades.

 

 

3d seems terribly confusing.

 

I am guessing south thought 3s was nonforcing rather than a clear slam try?

[Statto]

If I bid 3S, I will be badly placed if partner bids 4S, obviously I have enough for slam but how to I find out about the diamond control?

5♠ asking partner to bid slam if they can prevent 2 quick losers in ♦ (opps suit).

 

(Edit: deleted non-applicable extra sentence.)

[Codo]

If 3 ♠ was nonforcing, you better change your system. If it was forcing (as usual), south should have bid it. Instead of 4 NT he should have bid 5 ♠- to ask about the diamond control.

As north, I had accept the slam try of 4 NT.

[whereagles]

If 4NT is quantitative, then opener has extras and should bid 6NT.

[mikeh]

S committed a basic error, which used to bedevil American slam bidding back in the 1950's and 60's...he made a cuebid before telling partner what suit was trump. Moyse used to rail against this approach, blaming it (and weak 2 bids) for the inability of the US to beat the Blue Team.

 

3♠ over 2♠ is such an easy call that it is nearly criminal not to do it.

 

As for worrying about a diamond control, the S hand is strong enough that there seems to be 5 level safety......even if you give opener the worst diamond holding possible, he can't have more that KQJ♠ and QJ♦, so will have the ♥K, and thus 5-level safety.

 

It is easy to reach grand after 3♠. North has a positional monster, so has an easy 4♦ cue and then keycard leads to the inevitable grand.

 

This approach is independent of whether one plays 2/1 or standard american......even if 2♣ were not gf, 3♠ is.

[wank]

as others have said 3♦ was poor, but let's not let north off the hook.

 

i think he's too strong for 3NT in the first place with a well placed AQ of D and a good suit - i think he's worth a jump to 4nt. anyway, once responder bits 4nt, passing is criminal (worse than 3♦ imo).

[benlessard]

Im not so sure about 3S as being forcing if your not playing 2/1 GF. Since opener repeated S freely hes showing 6s therefore 3S can be bid with 2s and 10-11 pts. However if you play that a free 2S show some extras than 3S is 100% forcing. I like to play some sequence where a free bid show extras but im generally in the minority point of view for that regards. So its not 100% clear for me.