mycroft Posted January 27, 2012 Report Share Posted January 27, 2012 Surely weak jump shifts are popular enough that there must be a standard meaning for continuations. Does anyone know what this is?Heck, I'm just waiting for a standard meaning of WJS. On at least two other threads, I have argued that one of the major benefits of Bergen Raises and Fit Jumps, is that partner can't make a weak jump shift, so I don't have to figure out if he *can* play anywhere else or not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted January 27, 2012 Report Share Posted January 27, 2012 For the first sequence you mean: 1♦-3♣-3♦-3♠-4♣-5♣-5♦-....For the second you mean: 1♦-3♣-3♦-4♣-5♦ Remember that opener thinks that responder has diamonds, rather than clubs. Why would opener switch to clubs when he "knows" of the diamond fit and doesn't have any indication that there might be a club fit? RikMy understanding was that 3♣ was announced as a fit jump so he was expecting 5-7 clubs and 4 diamonds, hence playing in clubs. This appears to be wrong. I don't know if something's been edited since I first looked, but I could have sworn it just said "fit". On the second auction, if 4♣ is just shaping out I can see 5♣ still being bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted January 27, 2012 Report Share Posted January 27, 2012 I just about laughed out loud at this one. After reading the OP I assumed that partner had bid 3♦ slowly and this hand took further action. I was going to post that maybe pass is a logical alternative for a sufficiently poor class of player, but you would have to look quite hard to find an expert who thinks 3♦ is an attempt to improve the part score. Obviously (a weaker version of) DBurn's example could exist but it's just so wrong to use 3♦ to cater to that rare hand type. We are in essentially the same position as if we opened 3♣ and partner responded 3♦, i.e. partner is inviting further action and our hand is huge for a weak 3♣. So obviously 3♦ cannot stand. Unless you take a very literal interpretation of the laws and decide that pass is not a logical alternative so the player didn't choose from among logical alternatives etc. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mjj29 Posted January 27, 2012 Report Share Posted January 27, 2012 ♠A32 ♥AK2 ♦KQJ10987 ♣None You open 1♦. Partner bids 3♣, a weak jump shift. What call do you make?Surely you should open it 2♥ though - you have a straight flush :P 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted January 28, 2012 Author Report Share Posted January 28, 2012 My understanding was that 3♣ was announced as a fit jump so he was expecting 5-7 clubs and 4 diamonds, hence playing in clubs. This appears to be wrong. I don't know if something's been edited since I first looked, but I could have sworn it just said "fit". On the second auction, if 4♣ is just shaping out I can see 5♣ still being bid. No editing on this one Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AlexJonson Posted January 28, 2012 Report Share Posted January 28, 2012 ... Obviously (a weaker version of) DBurn's example could exist but it's just so wrong to use 3♦ to cater to that rare hand type. We are in essentially the same position as if we opened 3♣ and partner responded 3♦, i.e. partner is inviting further action and our hand is huge for a weak 3♣. ... So what does 3D show and what do you think is the frequency of that hand + a suitable weak jump opposite? I don't mind giving up rare scenarios, if the replacement is worth anything. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted January 28, 2012 Report Share Posted January 28, 2012 For the first sequence you mean: 1♦-3♣-3♦-3♠-4♣-5♣-5♦-....For the second you mean: 1♦-3♣-3♦-4♣-5♦ Remember that opener thinks that responder has diamonds, rather than clubs. Why would opener switch to clubs when he "knows" of the diamond fit and doesn't have any indication that there might be a club fit? RikMy understanding was that 3♣ was announced as a fit jump so he was expecting 5-7 clubs and 4 diamonds, hence playing in clubs. This appears to be wrong. I don't know if something's been edited since I first looked, but I could have sworn it just said "fit". On the second auction, if 4♣ is just shaping out I can see 5♣ still being bid.Here is the meaning that Wayne gave:At the table south's 3♣ was alerted and described as invitational or better with diamond support.I interpret that as 3♣ was artificial and invitational or better with diamond support, a so called criss-cross raise. It only tells about the diamonds (and the values) but says nothing about clubs. I obviously think that my interpretation is the only correct one :P , but I do understand why you interpreted it differently. And this led to different results in the assignment of an AS (and the answer to the question whether there was damage). Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted January 29, 2012 Report Share Posted January 29, 2012 Unless you take a very literal interpretation of the laws and decide that pass is not a logical alternative so the player didn't choose from among logical alternatives etc. I think that this interpretation has been discredited. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted February 2, 2012 Report Share Posted February 2, 2012 [hv=pc=n&s=st83h73d9cakt9753&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1dp3c(Preemptive)p3dp]133|200[/hv] I had various opinions on this one. What call do you make? What other calls do you seriously consider making? There was no further description to 3♣ other than pre-emptive. The class of player is International player.Pass. None. This reply is without looking at the rest of the thread! The only snag is that if I really did play it as pre-emptive I could imagine having an agreement that a 3♦ rebid was forcing. Now I shall look at the rest of the thread and find out that 3♣ was alerted as a splinter/natural game force/limit raise in diamonds/heart suit/impossible bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted February 2, 2012 Report Share Posted February 2, 2012 At the table south's 3♣ was alerted and described as invitational or better with diamond support.Told you so! :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted February 2, 2012 Report Share Posted February 2, 2012 Perhaps the TD should ask South if he plays 3C as weak with clubs with anyone else, and how he plays a rebid of opener's suit. Deciding on how one should play 3D is irrelevant. It is relevant what South thought 3D would mean. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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