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The smallest lie II


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[hv=s=sa6h5432daj103ca74]133|100|1D-(1H)-1S-(pass)

??[/hv]

 

In "The smallest lie", many people claimed they wouldn't bid 1NT without a heart stopper, and one even wouldn't open. I have added one more heart, and an extra jack. Is there now anybody who wouldn't rebid 1NT?

 

(I know, the weak 1-notrumpers still open 1NT :lol: )

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[hv=s=sa6h5432daj103ca74]133|100|1D-(1H)-1S-(pass)

??[/hv]

 

In "The smallest lie", many people claimed they wouldn't bid 1NT without a heart stopper, and one even wouldn't open. I have added one more heart, and an extra jack. Is there now anybody who wouldn't rebid 1NT?

 

(I know, the weak 1-notrumpers still open 1NT :lol: )

I consider any four card suit to be a half stop (it's fewer cards they can run,and if P also has a half stop it's not a suit that will generate many tricks).

 

So yes, I would rebid 1NT.

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The 4th heart makes NT worse!

 

It makes it less likely pard is covering the heart suit. 2 again.......

But even without a stop you still might make 1NT. A lot might depend on whether dummy or RHO or both or niether gets squeezed on the run of the .

 

Eric

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1NT. Who cares about stoppers? You can bid 2/3H to ask for one anyway... The need for stoppers is very overrated and causes enormous bidding problems if one worries about it before describing one's hand.

 

The location of high cards of little use before you showed your shape and strenght.

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So what now when lho cashes his 5 H tricks and switches to a C through partner's holding

Kxxxx

xx

Kxx

Qxx

 

Good contract guys! Hope you bid like this against me. especially when you are vulnerable. Even better if lho has 6H. Good luck with finding the DQ.

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So what now when lho cashes his 5 H tricks and switches to a C through partner's holding

Kxxxx

xx

Kxx

Qxx

 

Good contract guys! Hope you bid like this against me. especially when you are vulnerable. Even better if lho has 6H. Good luck with finding the DQ.

You'd rather play in 2 with a 3-3 fit?

 

Give him

Kxxxx

xx

xxx

Axx

 

And that's exactly what's going to happen.

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JT. If I bid as if I had 5D and 4C and you hold 3-3 in the minors, are you seriously telling me that you "disagree" with giving preference to D rather than passing 2C?

Don't take this the wrong way, but I'd go to whoever taught you to bid and ask for a refund. ;)

 

As for the other hand you posted, sure. However it is easy to make up hands to stress some point. Really, is this a likely hand to hold after a 1H overcall? Possible "Yes", likely "no".

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I think the most likely hand for your partner to have is one that can make 1NT or 2 of a minor.

 

JT. If I bid as if I had 5D and 4C and you hold 3-3 in the minors, are you seriously telling me that you "disagree" with giving preference to D rather than passing 2C?

 

 

I disagree that's what you've shown. As a majority of posters here have stipulated, they bid 1D and then 2C with 5 clubs and 4 diamonds, as well as 5 diamonds and 4 clubs. There's no reason to think that partner has one over the other.

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"Ron, aren't you one of these guys who ALWAYS open 1♦ with any 5-4 m distribution? "

 

Sure Free when I play Polish Club, but that is systemic with Polish C, as you well know. Playing PC responder can guess to pass, or guess to correct to 2D. That is one of the weaknesses of the system. This discussion does not involve PC though, so why bring it up?

 

Playing Standard I would do the same thing with 5 weak to weakish C and 4D; you do not bid this way with 5 rebiddable Cs, as you have no problems on the hand. (You MIGHT open 1D for theoretical reasons if you play Walsh style responses, but that is another story again.)

 

You see this is where forums like this are a bit of a problem. You need to read the posts people make and see in what context that post is made, not just half read them and focus on a phrase that is taken out of context with a totally different hand type in a totally different system. If you play Standard and have a rebiddable C suit, then it is pretty clear to open 1C and rebid 2C. But when opener opens 1D followed by 2C, responder always has to assume it is 5D and 4C and so it is automatic to give preference to D. The chances of 5D and 4C are greater than 5C and 4D. If you think this does not make sense, work through the logic. The reverse holding is an abberation in Standard bidding, though certainly possible .

 

Ron

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2, and if partner is 5-2-3-3, I expect a correction...now if we were playing "equality", with this had I would ALSO bid 2..hehehe. since 1 shows clubs or balanced hand unsuited for 1NT or 3NT. In equality, with spades. partner's bid over 1 is DBL.. so there I WOULD bid 1[sp (promising 3+ but weak)... easier.

 

Ben

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Assuming pard's 1 spades shows 5, I'd bid 2 spades.

If I have to lie, I'd rather raise pard's 5 bagger with Ax if he would expect me to raise with xxx, rather than lying on a stopper or risking a misfit in clubs.

No choice is perfect, I go for this one :P

 

On the other hand, if 1S shows 4+, I join the 2C crowd :)

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1N, which would be mandatory if I had opened 1 with clubs and diamonds reversed (or playing PC). What difference does it make that they run their hearts now against zero guard or later against one guard? We probably haven't seven running tricks if partner passes.

However, since 1 promises five spades, partner should bid 2 with three (two?) diamonds, allowing me to bid 2 with two cards. (And he should also bid 2 over 2 for the same reason.)

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However, since 1 promises five spades, partner should bid 2 with three (two?) diamonds, allowing me to bid 2 with two cards. (And he should also bid 2 over 2 for the same reason.)

This sounds weird to me.

 

In my opinon bidding 2 diamonds should show 4 diamonds, suggesting to play in a 4-4 fit rather than the already known 5-2 fit in spades (1NT MUST guarantee doubleton in spades).

It makes no sense to plan to rebid 2D to suggest a likely 4-3 diamond fit hoping that pard a corrects in a 5-2 fit seems a bit weird.

 

If this is the doubt, then I believe the choice for a weak responder is between passing 1NT or rebidding 2 spades.

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"Ron, aren't you one of these guys who ALWAYS open 1♦ with any 5-4 m distribution? "

 

Sure Free when I play Polish Club, but that is systemic with Polish C, as you well know. Playing PC responder can guess to pass, or guess to correct to 2D. That is one of the weaknesses of the system. This discussion does not involve PC though, so why bring it up?

 

Playing Standard I would do the same thing with 5 weak to weakish C and 4D; you do not bid this way with 5 rebiddable Cs, as you have no problems on the hand. (You MIGHT open 1D for theoretical reasons if you play Walsh style responses, but that is another story again.)

 

You see this is where forums like this are a bit of a problem. You need to read the posts people make and see in what context that post is made, not just half read them and focus on a phrase that is taken out of context with a totally different hand type in a totally different system. If you play Standard and have a rebiddable C suit, then it is pretty clear to open 1C and rebid 2C. But when opener opens 1D followed by 2C, responder always has to assume it is 5D and 4C and so it is automatic to give preference to D. The chances of 5D and 4C are greater than 5C and 4D. If you think this does not make sense, work through the logic. The reverse holding is an abberation in Standard bidding, though certainly possible .

 

Ron

Well, there's a thread about SAYC where lots of people open 1 with 4 s and 5 s, so it seems people also open this way in NATURAL systems, like the one we're talking about.

 

So you see the problem is not always about people 'not reading all posts', sometimes it's just about people 'think' other people don't read all posts.

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