Orla Posted January 23, 2012 Report Share Posted January 23, 2012 I was holding this hand when my partner opened 2NT (20 - 21HCP)♠K 7♥K J 5♦T 6 ♣K J T 7 6 3 I considered the possibility of a slam in clubs. We have a maximum of 32 HCP. It makes for sure if I am declarer. P is holding: ♠A J 3♥4 2♦A K Q J 9 ♣A Q 4 We do play 4-way transfer. So, is there any way of bidding to get to slam - if so, how? Or shall we just chalk it up to one that got away? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dwar0123 Posted January 23, 2012 Report Share Posted January 23, 2012 2nt-4♣(gerber)-4nt(3 aces)-6nt or 6♣ depending if its mp's or imps(and how much you like the idea of the lead coming into all your kings). 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted January 23, 2012 Report Share Posted January 23, 2012 Here is something from the 2006 ACBL Bulletin... in it's unmodified form : 2NT - 3S! = relay to 3NT3NT - ?? then:........... Pass = to play ( Needed since direct 3N is major 44 )........... 4C = slam try in clubs........... 4D = slam try in diam........... 4H = h splinter, both minors........... 4S = s splinter, both minors........... 4N = invitational to 6N........... 5N = forcing to 6N, invitational to 7N 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted January 23, 2012 Report Share Posted January 23, 2012 First of all I would value the South hand as 22, not that this changes much. Given you specify 4 suit transfers you presumably have to start 2NT - 3♠; 4♣ unless South has some other way of super-accepting. After that the simplest course is for North to ask for key cards with 4♦. The trouble is that it is played from the wrong hand so a misplaced AQ or missing ♦AK means trouble. A slightly imaginative alternative would be to start with 3♣. You do not say whether this would be normal or puppet Stayman (or even Baron) but I presume there is some way of showing a slam try in clubs afterwards. This would allow you to right-side. Of course with other methods there are different options. Ironically, my preferred methods would begin 1♣ - 1♠; 1NT and therefore it is impossible for me to reach the top spot on this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted January 23, 2012 Report Share Posted January 23, 2012 2NT-3♠= I´d like to play slam in clubs, what do you think?4♣ = I like your idea Sounds like a good start, actually opener could bid 4♦ rather than 4♣ because he really really likes the idea and has good diamonds or control or whatever partner needs in diamonds plus a maximum, and he even might protect the heart lead by letting partner declare, althou this is a bit subtle for B/I. Then you cuebid hearts and end up with whatever bid you have to check that there aren´t 2 keycars missing and settle for 6♣. If you didn´t bid it at the table then perhaps you have a slightly wrong concept about transfering to minors over 2NT opening, what was your bidding? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted January 23, 2012 Report Share Posted January 23, 2012 I would treat the opener as too good to open a 20-21 2N. I would also be bidding 6♣ with the club hand opposite 2N unless there were 2 aces or an ace and the Q♣ missing. 2♣-3♣-3♦-3N-4♣-4♦(Keycard)-4♥(0/3)-4♠(Q♣?)-5♦(yup+K♦)-6N would be my auction I think. If you open 2N, then I play a variant of what two4bridge posted, but playing straight 4 suit transfers: 2N-3♠-4♦(accept with good ♦)-4N(keycard)-5♣(0/3)-5♦(Q♣?)-5N(yes+K♦)-6♣/6N Which would wrongside the contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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