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insomnia - I


Phil

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Can't sleep so though I'd post a couple of hands from our holiday party / STAC today;

 

All MPs - mixed field

 

Xx AK9xx xx Q8xx

 

LHO 3 pard x's, RHO passes and you bid 4. Pard now bids 4. Now?

I'd bid 5. One of us is making a cue in support of the other. I will find out at the end of the hand which it was.

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All MPs - mixed field

Regardless of the gender of the participants, we have the agreement from years of confusion that 4S cannot be first-cue in this situation and that it is placing the contract. The doubler is taking the (limited) strength of the 4H advance into consideration already. In order to move for slam in either hearts or spades, she must do something else other than bid 4S.

 

BTW, South does not have more than expected. Doubler starts out assuming a six or seven count, and has found out South has a bit more.

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What's the difference between an immediate 4, and X followed by 4?

 

This is the crux of the problem. I think you can toss out a cross section of hands that pass 4 too.

 

I would guess partner's hand doesnt have a 7th spade. I would suspect partner has more controls and more suitability for other strains instead of a hand that is just spade heavy. This would seem to bring clubs into the picture, but the auction warns of bad breaks; can we handle a 44 club fit? Even the J seems to be a crucial card. I guessed 6214 / 6223 or less likely 6124.

 

To me this boils down to finding the right strain and the right level. Plus it's match points, so playing 5 is out.

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What's the difference between an immediate 4, and X followed by 4?

X then 4 shows suitability for other strains. That's exactly why 5 is useful as natural, and 4

is not setting trumps.

But since it could have 6=3 or 6=2 in the majors, whereas our 4 could be based on 3=5 (or even 4=5) in the majors,

it doesn't make sense for 4 to set trumps either.

 

After an immediate 4, 5 would be a cue (of course).

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