jtfanclub Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 First hand of the match (nobody vulnerable), MP, partner dealt.Playing your preference of 2/1 or SAYC, unfamiliar but decent partner.QJ7J87Q975864 Your partner opens 1♣. Would you pass or bid?Your partner opens 2NT, defined as a good 19-bad 21. Would you pass or bid? You already know my answer. Back in the days when people passed balanced 13 counts and played 21-22 2NT openings, this was a clear bid. Nowadays when 2NT gets opened with decent 19s and 1C gets opened on balanced 12 counts, this isn't worth a response. If you do respond 1NT to 1C with this hand, are you going to jump to 2NT if the 8♥ got turned into the ace? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 I would certainly respond to 1C. 2NT is a toss-up - I would probably pass. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ulrich Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 Normal 1N response, unless you play Acol style that 1C 1N = 8-10. Then you bid 1D on this hand. Wtp? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 i'd bid 1d on hand 1, playing walsh i expect partner to bid 1nt which i pass... i take 2nt to 3nt on hand 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 No expert here, but I thought 1club...1nt=8-10 hcp not 6-10 hcp so pass2)Bid 3nt with no real hope. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
xx1943 Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 1NT on the first showing 6-9 HCP no mayor. 1NT is also necessary as a sort of preempt against opponents bidding majors, esp. in MP. As Peter said the second is a toss-up. In IMPs I would bid for sure. In MP I guess I would pass. Al Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helium Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 1. 1 nt2. 3 nt in imp pass at mp kenneth Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 I'd probably passs a 1♣ opening. This looks like a 3 count and I don't want partner to get excited. I'd probably raise a 2NT contract to 3NT: The costs of raising are much smaller and the benefits of reaching game much higher... 1. 2NT is a miserable contract. Most of the time that 2NT makes, three will make as well 2. Partner has limited his hand, s there is no danger that he will make a strong bid 3. You need to bid your games Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 Agree with Richard, pass first and bid game in second. When you respongo to a level 1 opening you mean you are able to play game opposite a 19 balanced hand, it is not the kind of hand you are gonna play game ther, but it is a hand that would liek a game opposite a 21 balanced instead. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 fluffy, say you respond 1d to pard's 1c... and say he has that balanced 19 count and jumps to 2nt... can't you pass? more likely he'll bid 1M or 1nt... if 1nt, you can pass, and the contract is probably improved... if 1M you have a choice... pass to play in the 4/3 or bid 2c Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rebound Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 I respond 1♦/1♣ and raise to 3 over 2nt. Partner needs to know you hold something. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdulmage Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 To 1♣: I would respond 1♦To 2NT: I would definately pass. You have 4-3-3-3 distribution, all Queens and Jacks and no long suit. Partner could hold: ♠AKx♥Qxx♦Axxx♣AQx This is just one of the thousands of examples of poor 18-20 counts your partner could hold. You win 3 spades, 1 heart (if that), 3 diamonds (if that) and maybe 2 clubs. So with the opps having PERFECT holding, you could make 9 tricks. The other 98% of the time, you will go down. Worth it? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 To 2NT: I would definately pass. You have 4-3-3-3 distribution, all Queens and Jacks and no long suit. Partner could hold: ♠AKx♥Qxx♦Axxx♣AQx This is just one of the thousands of examples of poor 18-20 counts your partner could hold. You win 3 spades, 1 heart (if that), 3 diamonds (if that) and maybe 2 clubs. So with the opps having PERFECT holding, you could make 9 tricks. The other 98% of the time, you will go down. Worth it? I BELIEVE that the question is what you do after partner's 2NT opening: I'd be very surprised if partner tabled an 18 count... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdulmage Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 OOPS! LOL. If it's opening, then yeah, I would be bidding it up to 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 fluffy, say you respond 1d to pard's 1c... and say he has that balanced 19 count and jumps to 2nt... can't you pass? more likely he'll bid 1M or 1nt... if 1nt, you can pass, and the contract is probably improved... if 1M you have a choice... pass to play in the 4/3 or bid 2c This is an old question, to me 2NT is game forcing, given that is is game forcing I´ve put some of the strtong 1 suiters on the 2NT rebid as well, so 2NT rebid isn´t necesarilly balanced. But it is not the point, 2NT rebid by opener should be game forcing, is one of the basis of the 5 card major I know. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 ok, if you play it as gf that's all there is to it... i don't play any known limit nt bid as game force... opener is saying he has 18, 19 hcp (usually balanced)... that can be passed, the same as an opening 2nt can be passed ... to me, that is... others see it differently, i'm sure if opener has a big hand with a strong one suiter, he might just as well bid 3nt as 2nt Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 I evaluate the hand as a 4-count, and would always pass 1C. At matchpoints, I would also pass 3NT (if 2NT goes down too, I'd still rather be in 2NT than 3NT!). At IMPs I'd bid 3NT of course. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 17, 2004 Report Share Posted October 17, 2004 If you don't bid on 2NT you're crazy imo! These days we only need about 24 HCP together to make 3NT or 4M. If you pass a 2NT opening, you will play in 2NT with an average of 27 combined HCP! Absolute madness! Pass over 1♣? Never, but I can understand some will pass. It's a bidder's game, so bid if you have half the deck. I won't be a good boy by bidding 1♦, I'll be a good bidder with 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted October 18, 2004 Report Share Posted October 18, 2004 fluffy, say you respond 1d to pard's 1c... and say he has that balanced 19 count and jumps to 2nt... can't you pass? more likely he'll bid 1M or 1nt... if 1nt, you can pass, and the contract is probably improved... if 1M you have a choice... pass to play in the 4/3 or bid 2c With good 19 P would have opend 2NT per definition of this system, so they are bad 19 and i can pass 2NT or the hand is not balanced. If p had is not balanced my hand might be good enough for game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 18, 2004 Report Share Posted October 18, 2004 If you don't bid on 2NT you're crazy imo! These days we only need about 24 HCP together to make 3NT or 4M. If you pass a 2NT opening, you will play in 2NT with an average of 27 combined HCP! Absolute madness! 24 HCP is enough when you have 12 opposite 12. 20 opposite 6 makes less tricks than 12 opposite 12. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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