Finch Posted December 4, 2011 Report Share Posted December 4, 2011 Auction, starting on your right: 1H 1S 3H 4Sall pass In one of the suits you have a combined holding of J2 opposite singleton 3.Why does it matter which card you play from dummy (J2) on the first round of the suit? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted December 4, 2011 Report Share Posted December 4, 2011 The usual reason for playing a high card in such a situation is to keep an opponent off the lead. Another reason could be to try to deceive them as to the real holding. What am I missing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted December 4, 2011 Report Share Posted December 4, 2011 Congratulatory Jack. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted December 4, 2011 Author Report Share Posted December 4, 2011 The usual reason for playing a high card in such a situation is to keep an opponent off the lead. Another reason could be to try to deceive them as to the real holding. What am I missing? You aren't necessarily missing anything. I thought the hand was sweet. What are all 4 hands? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted December 4, 2011 Report Share Posted December 4, 2011 I played a board like this where my partner underlead AKJTxxx on lead vs a slam and they failed to play the Q from dummy, so my 9 held the trick and I gave partner at ruff at trick two. Something like this would do: [hv=pc=n&s=s7haj765dat5cakq3&w=sakq5432ht98dcj42&n=sj8hkq432dkqj432c&e=st96hd9876ct98765&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1h4s5hp6hppp&p=s5s8]399|300[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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