Antrax Posted November 27, 2011 Report Share Posted November 27, 2011 Club night. S opens 1NT, N bids 3♣. No alert is given. E doubles the 3♣ bid, and S passes. W asks south about 3♣ and gets the explanation "a weak hand with 6+ clubs, signoff-ish". W passes, N bids 3♥. E and S pass to W who bids 3♠, which is then passed all around. The confusion arose from the fact N meant 3♣ as puppet stayman, but this is not the agreed system. There's no convention card. S had no idea what's going on after north's 3♥ bid so he just elected to pass. E had long clubs. a) When should N tell the opponents that he misbid, if at all?b) Is S under any obligation during the auction?c) Is north's 3♥ bid legal?d) Does any of this change if the pair have a convention card that says 3♣ is a natural signoff? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted November 27, 2011 Report Share Posted November 27, 2011 [hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1np3cdpp3hpp3sppp]133|100[/hv]a) When should N tell the opponents that he misbid, if at all?In theory, never. In practice, it would be polite to explain after the hand is over. b) Is S under any obligation during the auction?Only to state any agreements as he understands them, which he did. c) Is north's 3♥ bid legal?I expect so. He has UI from the explanation, but since he would bid 3♥ anyway - I presume - why not? The only worry is if 3♥ shows spades: now we might adjust because he did not bid 3♠. d) Does any of this change if the pair have a convention card that says 3♣ is a natural signoff?No. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BunnyGo Posted November 27, 2011 Report Share Posted November 27, 2011 @bluejack: I am not a director, but I was under the impression that if North had misbid with 3♣ and was alerted to this fact by the alert, he was not allowed to take advantage and run. Am I conflating this with some similar cases? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted November 27, 2011 Report Share Posted November 27, 2011 @bluejack: I am not a director, but I was under the impression that if North had misbid with 3♣ and was alerted to this fact by the alert, he was not allowed to take advantage and run. Am I conflating this with some similar cases?You are partially correct. If pass would have been a logical alternative, North should sit. But North knows that South opened 1NT. If North holds a singleton club, pass is not going to be a logical alternative. And it is very likely that North is short in clubs: South promised 2, East has long clubs (according to the OP) and West passed what should be an obvious takeout double. They should be about 6-5-2-0 around the table. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antrax Posted November 27, 2011 Author Report Share Posted November 27, 2011 From my understanding, east's double was meant as lead-directing, and west's pass was of the same variety as south's: "I have no idea what's going on". Clubs were 4-2-2-5, with S holding 4 and E 5. N had 4-3 in the majors. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
iviehoff Posted November 28, 2011 Report Share Posted November 28, 2011 c) Is north's 3♥ bid legal?It depends how one might plausibly interpret S's pass of 3C if N's 3C really was puppet. N is not allowed to know that S passed on the assumption that N's bid is weakish with long clubs. If S's pass of 3CX, to a puppet Stayman player, is a strong indication that he wants to play in 3CX, because he has a good club suit, then N might plausibly have a logical alternative to pass that. If S's pass merely means "No 5 card major, partner", perhaps with some extra distinction of meaning now that S has an alternative to bidding 3D, then N will of course proceed as he otherwise would in that situation. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antrax Posted November 28, 2011 Author Report Share Posted November 28, 2011 Thanks, that makes sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted November 28, 2011 Report Share Posted November 28, 2011 It depends how one might plausibly interpret S's pass of 3C if N's 3C really was puppet. N is not allowed to know that S passed on the assumption that N's bid is weakish with long clubs. If S's pass of 3CX, to a puppet Stayman player, is a strong indication that he wants to play in 3CX, because he has a good club suit, then N might plausibly have a logical alternative to pass that. If S's pass merely means "No 5 card major, partner", perhaps with some extra distinction of meaning now that S has an alternative to bidding 3D, then N will of course proceed as he otherwise would in that situation.It is an interesting question what a pass of 3♣ doubled means. Certainly I play it as five clubs with my regular partner, but I seem to be in a small minority. Every other partner I have ever discussed it with plays redouble as "I have clubs" and pass as nothing to say. I think the reason why I am different is that I was brought up on the mini no-trump vulnerable and the first thing I learnt was how to get out of trouble - and I might play 2♣ doubled but not redoubled. Playing in the American Nationals with my American partner a few years ago I played 2♣ redoubled +2 [making 4 as they say here] for a flat board! Same auction! Of course this is 3♣ not 2♣ but I presume one plays the same. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antrax Posted November 29, 2011 Author Report Share Posted November 29, 2011 Yeah. It's undiscussed in our partnership, but if I were sitting N I'd expect XX to say "let's play here, I have clubs" and pass to be "nothing to say", as in no 4 or 5 card major (and no reason to bid 3NT if partner has anything more to add). Then I wouldn't know what to make of partner's pass of 3♥, as logically partner is supposed to bid 3NT or 4♥ at this point. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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