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Simple problem?


Bussy

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Dealer: East / MPs / All white

 

Pd (North) opens 1 in 4th Seat.

Op (East) bids 1.

 

What is your bid with:

 

1098

10752

QJ87

A2

 

What is your 2nd bid after West raises to 2 and Pd passes?

 

Did you reverse the order of the hand or just the symbols?

In both cases - I would double, and correct to if partner bids . If he bids hearts or NT I am happy.

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Oh sorry, right. I have reversed the order.

 

A2

QJ87

10752

1098

 

Question 2)

 

Bidding goes:

 

East - South - West - North

 

Pass - Pass - Pass - 1

1 - (????) - 2 - Pass

Pass - ??

Edited by Bussy
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East - South - West - North

 

Pass - Pass - Pass - 1

1 - (????) - 2 - Pass

Pass - ??

 

3, and hope we dont go for -2 doubled....I see no reason to think that 2 is not making, so as long as we loose less than 110 it would be good.

 

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I wouldn't be worried about being doubled in 3. The main problem is that the 3 bid has a very wide range - from this hand (or worse) all the way up to an 11-count. As usual, I think transfers are the answer - 2NT showing clubs, 3 showing diamonds weak or game-forcing, 3 natural invitational.
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I wouldn't be worried about being doubled in 3. The main problem is that the 3 bid has a very wide range - from this hand (or worse) all the way up to an 11-count. As usual, I think transfers are the answer - 2NT showing clubs, 3 showing diamonds weak or game-forcing, 3 natural invitational.

I wouldn't have this problem with this sequence (which I'd also adopt) as an initial 2 would be inverted not denying 4M 10+, so I'm limited to 9.

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I wouldn't be worried about being doubled in 3. The main problem is that the 3 bid has a very wide range - from this hand (or worse) all the way up to an 11-count. As usual, I think transfers are the answer - 2NT showing clubs, 3 showing diamonds weak or game-forcing, 3 natural invitational.

 

That is the point! Yesterday I've doubled first & bidden 3 over 2. My partner (with a nice 14 HCP hand / also King of ) tried 3NT... - doubled/ -2. "I thought you had 10/11 points p..."

I like your Lebensohl-like sequence...

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A2 QJ87 10752 1098

(Pass) - Pass - (Pass) - 1

(1) - ?1 - (2) - Pass

(Pass) - ?2

IMO

  1. 2 = 10, Double = 9, 3 = 6. This hand is worth only one bid.
  2. If you doubled 1, then 3 = 10, Pass = 9. Otherwise pass = 10.

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It must be fun trying to cope with sequences like 1 (1) 2 (3).

Actually no problem at all here with the 4th seat 1, can be more of a problem with the first seat version but curiously has never actually caused us a problem as far as I can remember in the 15 odd years we've played this.

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It must be fun trying to cope with sequences like 1 (1) 2 (3).

Actually no problem at all here with the 4th seat 1, can be more of a problem with the first seat version but curiously has never actually caused us a problem as far as I can remember in the 15 odd years we've played this.

You have never missed a cold 4 bidding like this? Maybe you have played this for 15 years, but how many boards do you play per year? ;)

 

Rik

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There are 4 bids over 1, neg x, 1nt and 2 (if not inverted) and 3 if playing inverted (a bit insane)..I give a neg x 10, as it seems the most sensible and describes my holding since we may be missing a heart fit. I give NT a 5 and 2a 7, but it is also not so good for the same reason...I pass 2...why am I competing with 3 at IMPs??....3 promises a lot more than a balanced 7 count..and do I really want go for 300? ESPECIALLY when pard passes 2
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I would be competing with 3D and not worried that partner will think I am inviting game.

 

Second double=more strength

2NT=more distribution, hearts and clubs.

3D=this hand.

 

We already know pard has a good 13-14, and 4 diamonds (at least). She opened the bidding in 4th chair and doesn't have spades; she won't restate that fact by bidding again over 3D.

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