InTime Posted November 22, 2011 Report Share Posted November 22, 2011 If the bidding is:1NT* - (Pass) - 2♦ - (Double)2NT** - (4♦) - Pass? * 15-17** breaking the transfer with max Is the pass from partner forcing here?Regards Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 22, 2011 Report Share Posted November 22, 2011 No. We could have 17 opposite 0. 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
S2000magic Posted November 22, 2011 Report Share Posted November 22, 2011 Agreed: we haven't committed to (or even suggested) even a game contract, so we cannot make a forcing pass. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted November 22, 2011 Report Share Posted November 22, 2011 My own rule is that if there is any doubt, pass is not forcing. Fortunately, on this hand there is no doubt, since responder has not shown any values. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted November 22, 2011 Report Share Posted November 22, 2011 Not in a million years. Similar to turning your computer off and on again when it crashes, the first thing you need to consider to decide if a pass is forcing or not is if partner has promissed any values. This probably solves 90% of the FP questions on this forum. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted November 22, 2011 Report Share Posted November 22, 2011 To me, the question is: how far was the partnership forced before the opps' last bid? Here, 2N forced to the 3-level. That means the opps cannot play undoubled below 3♥. They are higher than 3♥. Therefore they can play undoubled and we can pass. While fp scenarios can be complex (you should see Kokish's notes on fp!), most situations can be encompassed in a few rules and the rule that in sequences in which we have established a force to a certain level, opposition action beyond that level doesn't create a fp is a basic and easily remembered approach. Edit: without detracting from the foregoing, this particular auction might well NOT be forcing even over 3♦ for the reasons given by others.....partner hasn't shown any values at all. The rule I describe above should only apply when the partnership has shown the values to force to a certain level. Oh well, I did say that fp scenarios can be complex. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted November 23, 2011 Report Share Posted November 23, 2011 To me, the question is: how far was the partnership forced before the opps' last bid? Here, 2N forced to the 3-level. That means the opps cannot play undoubled below 3♥. They are higher than 3♥. Therefore they can play undoubled and we can pass. While fp scenarios can be complex (you should see Kokish's notes on fp!), most situations can be encompassed in a few rules and the rule that in sequences in which we have established a force to a certain level, opposition action beyond that level doesn't create a fp is a basic and easily remembered approach. Edit: without detracting from the foregoing, this particular auction might well NOT be forcing even over 3♦ for the reasons given by others.....partner hasn't shown any values at all. The rule I describe above should only apply when the partnership has shown the values to force to a certain level. Oh well, I did say that fp scenarios can be complex. MikeH, should i take your explenation as 1♠-(3♥-4♥-(5♥)pass is not forcing for you since opener was forced to only 4♠ ? I dont play it this way, but i didnt write this to disagree, just trying to make sure if i understood you correctly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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