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not a lot pard..


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depends on your doubling structure. If partner's bidding shows the equivalent of a strong 2 then call 3. If your partner has some discretion between 2, 3, and 4 then while he holds xtras pass should be clear.

 

Are you afraid that with a hand where partner would have opened a Strong 2 and then would have jumped to 3 he will sell out to the opponents playing 3? Just how conservative (chicken) is your partner?

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Are you afraid that with a hand where partner would have opened a Strong 2 and then would have jumped to 3 he will sell out to the opponents playing 3? Just how conservative (chicken) is your partner?

I expect 4 shows a hand stronger than 3 shows a hand stronger than 2 shows more than a minimum TOX

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I expect 4 shows a hand stronger than 3 shows a hand stronger than 2 shows more than a minimum TOX

 

I'm not sure what all of this means, then.

 

It seems like you are saying that if 2 is only sufficient for a 2 call, then you pass, but if 2 shows a hand where partner should or could have bid 3, then you would bid 3. But, if that is true, then I think my question remains valid -- why bid 3 simply to ensure that partner, who should not pass 3 when bidding to 3 is right, does not pass 3?

 

Maybe bidding 3 as Advancer is right or wrong, but your reasoning as to why seems to imply protection against an idiot partner rather than making a valid, descriptive call. But that might just be my take.

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If I read it correctly, what the tuna is saying in his second post is that 2S is weaker than 3S and 3S is weaker than 4S, and that all 3 are stronger than a minimum take-out double. Note also that with a 2C opener Doubler could have bid 2D (or 4S). I would tend to agree with this and 2S shows about 16-20 or so for me. However, if 2S was defined as worth a 2C opener (as per tuna's first post) then I would certainly not consider a 3S call but instead be going for 4S, which ought to show a weak hand without any key cards.
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