gwnn Posted October 27, 2011 Report Share Posted October 27, 2011 T9xxxxKxxQ9xx 1N-2♣2♠-4♥end What would you think 4♥ is? Don't ask LHO, he doesn't know. He passed quickly. It's not a splinter (you suspect as much), but they do play transfers. Anyway what do you lead? matchpoints. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted October 27, 2011 Report Share Posted October 27, 2011 Hi, for me 4H is a splinter. Assuming 4H is not a splinter - diamond. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted October 27, 2011 Report Share Posted October 27, 2011 presumably you are leading into a 46xy hand so you need to get any minor suit winners fast. If dummy holds AK♣ away goes any hope of 2♦ winners while the dummy holding AQ♦ requires declarer to finesse. Lead a ♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 27, 2011 Report Share Posted October 27, 2011 T9xxxxKxxQ9xx 1N-2♣2♠-4♥end What would you think 4♥ is? Don't ask LHO, he doesn't know. He passed quickly. It's not a splinter (you suspect as much), but they do play transfers. Anyway what do you lead? matchpoints. 4h=rkc in spades. 4nt would be quant. lead low d. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted October 27, 2011 Report Share Posted October 27, 2011 If they, in fact, do play transfers ---then there is no hand consistent with the 4H call, IMO. Will start by giving partner his spade ruff at trick one; don't think anything really matters. Dummy didn't supply any information after the auction, confirming what OP said about not asking, because he wouldn't know. However, perhaps he did know, and didn't think he had to explain as a delay alert because it was natural; and you might have gained by asking the difference between this and a transfer sequence. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 (edited) 4H in this Stayman auction should not exist. As for RKC, 4C! = RKC agreeing Sp ( Baze ) -- or 4D! = RKC ( modified Baze ). 3H! = ( other major ) splinter somewhere ... next step asks ... you can even show a void . 3C/3D = no Sp fit ( have 4h ), natural 4+ card minor, slammish 4NT = Quant, no Sp fit EDIT: 4D! ( Baze ) = fit, balanced, slam invitation -- or 4C! = fit, RCK ( modified Baze ) - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - The only thing I can think of is 4H as natural, 6 cards Hts / 4 cards Sp.But why would you NOT want to play in the 4-4 Sp fit ?? Edited October 28, 2011 by TWO4BRIDGE 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 I thought 4h was pretty standard bridge for rkc in spades....I guess not after reading all of these posts. I would not have given it a second thought. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 For me it would be a splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 1NT-2♣2♠------ -3♥ sp fit and splinter in a suit, -4♣ general ace query, -4♦ slam invitation comfirming ♠, -4♥ RKCB in ♠, -4NT quantitative. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 I thought 4h was pretty standard bridge for rkc in spades....I guess not after reading all of these posts. I would not have given it a second thought.4H would be a splinter for me too. To RKCB I would first bid 3H and then follow with 4NT. I think the ability to have a cue auction at the 3 level is more important than being able to ask for key cards below 4M or hide the splinter suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted October 28, 2011 Author Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 Maybe my question was unclear. I wanted to ask you what you think RHO has, not what you personally play 4♥ as. They were a pickup partnership and RHO didn't seem unpleased with the pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 Maybe my question was unclear. I wanted to ask you what you think RHO has, not what you personally play 4♥ as. They were a pickup partnership and RHO didn't seem unpleased with the pass.Luckily I can ask LHO. No agreement wouldn't really cut it here when passing a bid that most would consider forcing. You also did not mention whether they play Texas or what 3H would have been, or any other questions which we have a right to ask and might help us to come up with some rationale for the opps' bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted October 28, 2011 Author Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 Sure you can ask LHO but as I told you he just has no clue, it is obvious from his face. On top of that I have a language barrier problem, my Dutch is not good enough and sometimes their English is not good enough. Anyway I guess I thought it was interesting to try to guess what RHO has on this auction when no one at the table really knows, but I see people in general do not argee. RHO had a 3703 and was interested in slam only if LHO had shown 4 of them. The lead was immaterial (I led a diamond), they always make 6. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 Sure you can ask LHO but as I told you he just has no clue, it is obvious from his face. On top of that I have a language barrier problem, my Dutch is not good enough and sometimes their English is not good enough. Anyway I guess I thought it was interesting to try to guess what RHO has on this auction when no one at the table really knows, but I see people in general do not argee. RHO had a 3703 and was interested in slam only if LHO had shown 4 of them. The lead was immaterial (I led a diamond), they always make 6.I guess I don't understand that reasoning. He could have transfered with 2♦ and he would have found out if partner had 4. If he would have been playing with me, I would have taken it as a splinter. We would always have been playing a spade contract in the 4-3 fit, with only the level to be decided. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 I guess I don't understand that reasoning. He could have transfered with 2♦ and he would have found out if partner had 4. If he would have been playing with me, I would have taken it as a splinter. We would always have been playing a spade contract in the 4-3 fit, with only the level to be decided. RikI think the reasoning is that with a pick-up partner you don't expect a transfer break on a 4 card suit - after all, you haven't discussed what methods you are playing - therefore Stayman is the way to find out. And without agreement, no way is 4H ace asking, and I wouldn't risk it as a splinter. So therefore it is natural. Therefore 46+xx GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted October 28, 2011 Report Share Posted October 28, 2011 So therefore it is natural. Therefore 46+xx GF.And he bid stayman with no intention of playing a 4-4 spade fit. Why did he bother? At least we agree that 4H is G.F., since it is four of a Major. 4H as a retransfer to 4S makes as much sense as the 4-6 idea. :rolleyes: If that is the explanation, it was nice of him to tell opening leader to give his partner a spade ruff in 4 hearts, and wrong-side the contract in other cases. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted October 29, 2011 Report Share Posted October 29, 2011 I think the reasoning is that with a pick-up partner you don't expect a transfer break on a 4 card suit - after all, you haven't discussed what methods you are playingI would expect any non-beginner pickup partner to recognize 1NT-2♦-3♥ as a super-accept without any discussion. I wouldn't try any other flavor of transfer break, but the general "maximum with 4-card support" should be understood. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 29, 2011 Report Share Posted October 29, 2011 And he bid stayman with no intention of playing a 4-4 spade fit. Why did he bother? At least we agree that 4H is G.F., since it is four of a Major. 4H as a retransfer to 4S makes as much sense as the 4-6 idea. :rolleyes: If that is the explanation, it was nice of him to tell opening leader to give his partner a spade ruff in 4 hearts, and wrong-side the contract in other cases. If it is a pick-up partnership, he might not know how to play 4H: he doesn't know if an immediate 4H response is to play or a transfer to spades; he doesn't know if a 4D response is both majors or a transfer to hearts. He may be concerned that transfer-then-4H is a slam try. If he doesn't look unhappy at the pass then I believe he has a lot of hearts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 29, 2011 Report Share Posted October 29, 2011 4H in this Stayman auction should not exist. "Should not exist"?? If you decide to play a complex system (as you seem to do) then there's no reason not to give it a meaning. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 29, 2011 Report Share Posted October 29, 2011 4♥= I don't wanna play 6♥ if you don't have 4 I lead my normal club, diamond could be better but no clue. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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