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I'm having a discussion with a pickup partner who didn't approve of my actions on this hand. As part of my learning I am interested to hear what members, especially A/E, think of my actions and what, if anything, I should have done differently.

 

W v R, IMPs (would it be different at MP?)

 

(P) P (P) 1

(P) ?

 

Q

KJT2

762

J9653

 

Partner's profile says simple SAC so I take that to mean SAYC.

 

What do you do?

 

What do you think about my reasoning and decision in the spoiler?

 

 

 

Partner could have as many as 19HCP so I wanted to keep the bidding alive. Furthermore, there's a chance partner could have a 4432 hand, but I think that's less likely.

 

Although I have 6HCP my Q really might not be worth much, as partner later pointed out, unless he has a good Spade side suit of AKx. Worse still it looks odds on that partner is going to bid 1.

 

On the plus side I have 4 good Hearts and the Clubs will act as a stopper if we end up NT over partners expected Spade bid.

 

I really don't see a problem in bidding here so ...

 

(P) P (P) 1

(P) 1 (1) 2

(2) P (P) 2NT

(X) ?

 

 

Pass after 2 looked like a no brainer but what now?

 

Looks like partner has a good spade stopper, as I would expect, and prefers NT over Hearts. The must be invitational, surely? If it is then 2NT doubled is a good spot to be. Well I can't bid on and partner gets another bid so if he prefers to play in Hearts he can correct so I pass.

 

Sadly we went down 3 in 2NT.

 

 

 

As always, thanks in advance for you comments,

 

Simon

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1 is the only bid I would consider reasonable here. As a beginner, I'd've thought for a second about passing, but would not do so at MPs or IMPs or any other form of scoring.

 

After the auction in the spoiler, I'd bid 3 at MPs. I'm tempted to make a game try at IMPs. I'd probably just bid 3 though.

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I'd quickly have found another pickup to play with. As for 1, I expect I'd have lots of company bidding it if my Q were the deuce. One wonders what garbage pickup had to bid 2NT. It is not up to you to save pard from 2NTx as he should have a hand worthy of inviting you to 3NT or 4 (noting that you don't mention supX so perhaps he has only 3 ). If partner actually has his 2NT bid, the Q should help solidify a 2nd stop and he could even be playing for OT's.

 

You bid perfectly. I look forward to seeing how much of an overbid pard's 2NT was ! .. neilkaz ..

 

EDIT.. oops I failed to see that pard bid 2 prior to 2NT and 2 is not invitational. I still pass 2NTx as I have only 4 and pard knows whether he has 3 or 4 and how well he stops

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1 over 1 is automatic and I'd still respond 1 on this if the Q was the deuce and the J was low and not think it a particularly strange thing to do.

 

I'm slightly confused by p's bidding 2(which does not really invite me to bid on) and then 2nt (which looks strong). It feels like either he was meant to bid 2, 3 or 2NT the first time round or this is meant as some sort of scramble (given that x feels like pens, even in a pick-up partnership) so I'll try 3 on your hand and pass whatever p bids now (if anything).

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Bid of 1 just perfect. And also P after 2.

 

Lets think what p would like to tell you (if it is not a bold overbid):

First he showed with 2 a min-opening and 4-card support (with 3 he would/ could/ should have X). Now he pops up with 2NT?! To play 2NT after fit-confirmation in doesnt make sense.

IMO there is one thing he might have had on his mind: If he has something like 4432 or 3442 or 4441 and a max within the context of his min-hand, he wants to compete (at least) on level 3 (and is maybe hoping for more if you have a perfectly matching hand). But this thought still doesnt work for 2 reasons:

- In case you would have had more than minimum you would have acted differently after 2

- If he has any length in you are short in , thats clear. If he has HCP in they are anyhow wasted. If he has nothing in why to tell the obvious. It just helps opps in case we are to defend against a -contract.

 

Edit (I forgot the last sentence):

2NT therefore doesnt make sense at all. He described his minimum-opening with 2H. And thats it. Full stop.

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1H is clear. As partner has only raised to 2H, 2NT cannot be an invite. My guess is that you are not playing support Xs and pd only had 3 cards in H. The 2NT bid looks pretty weird to me anyway. I would bid 3H over the x and would certainly not be surprised to get doubled.
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1 is obvious and doesn't need that many thought. Passing over 2 is also obvious, because you don't have extra's and 2 of your HCP have just been erased. Partner's 2NT bid is weird but it can't show any extra's after his 2 bid. For me, 2NT is a suggestion to play, since Q apparently is worth something I'd just pass. If partner goes down, it means he bid 2NT with the wrong hand.
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after partner bid 2 he cannot try for game. he has only three possibilities in this auction (in the first approximation):

 

*defend 2 (with a pass)

*offer to defend 2 doubled (double)

*offer to play 3

 

However, the last part is too restrictive. For example, if he had bid 3 it's clear that he is giving us a choice between 3 and 3. The question is what are 2NT and 3 the offers for. 3 might be 1-4-4-4 and 2NT 1-4-5-3? Anyway I think he shows at least some interest to play in clubs, but not with a lot of clubs, and he can't have so many diamonds because he bid already 2 and did not bid 3 so I would bid 3.

 

obviously, however, partner does not have any of the above because I have only one spade!! so it's anybody's guess what you should do.

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