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a couple of treatments..


jillybean

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1:1NT* forcing

4 Opener has 5-card S and 6-card H (min hand 10-12)

 

 

1:1NT

2:2 Could be 2 or 3 card support with 4-7hcp

2NT Opener shows intermediate hand 16-17

 

 

Comments?

 

 

I play option two very often...but perhaps not as exact as you do. My style responder can have a wider hand but....not easy....I play responder could have much more but again not easy......an ugly..ugly auction...

 

 

 

dont know example one.

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1:1NT* forcing

4 Opener has 5-card S and 6-card H (min hand 10-12)

f

 

I don't think a 5-6 hand with 10-12 is strong enough to insist on playing game. You will just go down too often. On most hands where you can make game , pd will bid again after your 2 rebid - either 3 or 2NT or perhaps 2.

 

1:1NT

2:2 Could be 2 or 3 card support with 4-7hcp

2NT Opener shows intermediate hand 16-17

 

 

Isn't this the normal meaning for this bid?

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Treatment 1 strikes me as very odd. It's just a hand that opens 1 instead of 1, and isn't strong enough to force to game. Play Gazzilli and you can even bid 1-1NT-2 with minimum 6-5. A much better treatment imo.

 

Treatment 2 is standard if I read it correctly. The 4-7HCP is only relevant for 3 card support right? With doubleton you can have up to 9 or 10HCP.

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Treatment 1 strikes me as very odd. It's just a hand that opens 1 instead of 1, and isn't strong enough to force to game. Play Gazzilli and you can even bid 1-1NT-2 with minimum 6-5. A much better treatment imo.

Before Gazilli, some played a jump reverse, 1H - 1NT; 3S as showing this hand - very distributional but too weak in hcp for a reverse. I am not sure it was a good method but it was reasonably common. I am not sure what the difference is in Treatment 2 from standard. Even when not playing constructive raises this is the normal meaning, no?

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Before Gazilli, some played a jump reverse, 1H - 1NT; 3S as showing this hand - very distributional but too weak in hcp for a reverse. I am not sure it was a good method but it was reasonably common.

I heard of that treatment, at least it's a little bit better because you don't commit to game (you can still play 3). Obviously you can always just open 1 and rebid 2, it's not that big of a problem. :)

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Treatment 1 strikes me as very odd. It's just a hand that opens 1 instead of 1, and isn't strong enough to force to game. Play Gazzilli and you can even bid 1-1NT-2 with minimum 6-5. A much better treatment imo.

 

Treatment 2 is standard if I read it correctly. The 4-7HCP is only relevant for 3 card support right? With doubleton you can have up to 9 or 10HCP.

Thanks, I will read up on Gazzilli http://freebridge.blogspot.com/2009/08/gazzilli.html

Playing Gazzilli we lose the ability to play in a minor at the 2 level since 2 rebid by opener is now forcing? But I like the look of the rest of it :)

 

& yes, you can have up to 9-10 and doubleton for #2

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Thanks, I will read up on Gazzilli http://freebridge.blogspot.com/2009/08/gazzilli.html

Playing Gazzilli we lose the ability to play in a minor at the 2 level since 2 rebid by opener is now forcing? But I like the look of the rest of it :)

You can't play 2m if opener rebids 2 (well, in practice you can pass 2 if you have 0HCP and were hoping for a stong partner). However, he can also rebid 2 which you can pass.

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Would you really have rebid 2S with 6 spades, 4 diamonds and 16hcp? In American bridge I understand it is traditional to rebid the major with 6-4 weak (ie bid 6-6-4) and to rebid the minor and repeat the major on the 3rd round with a better hand (6-4-6). This is not how I learned it this side of the pond though...
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Would you really have rebid 2S with 6 spades, 4 diamonds and 16hcp? In American bridge I understand it is traditional to rebid the major with 6-4 weak (ie bid 6-6-4) and to rebid the minor and repeat the major on the 3rd round with a better hand (6-4-6). This is not how I learned it this side of the pond though...

There likely won't be a 3rd round after 1M:1N* 2D, with 16 points and 6 spades I would consider 3. I don't know if this is

standard, or best.

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1:1NT

2:2 Could be 2 or 3 card support with 4-7hcp

2NT Opener shows intermediate hand 16-17

 

 

 

 

 

Isn't this the normal meaning for this bid?

 

Not for me. With 4 points my default is pass, when I correct back to opener's Major I could have as much as 10 with a dub.

Bidding 2NT with a good 16-17 is about right, showing 5242 shape. But I think this a low % call with many random 16/17.

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On the second treatment what is

 

1:1N

2:2

3 - holding 6's I would have responded 2/1N

 

With 6-4 I think it is generally better to bid your second suit. If partner shows preference to 2S then you can show extras by bidding 3S.

 

AQ10xxx

Kx

AQxx

x

 

If you bid this way partner will have a very good idea of which cards are useful for 4S and which are not.

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