Gambling?

[Hanoi5]

We're white, they're red:

 

♠AJx

♥KQ

♦x

♣KQ98xxx

 

Partner opened 1NT (15-17), I bid 2♠ and she bid 2NT which shows the ♣A in this case. What should I bid then?

[ArtK78]

Is 3♠ a cue bid? If so, that makes sense.

 

If you play that any new suit after the 2NT bid shows shortness (a not uncommon treatment), then 3♦ is clear.

 

If you have no agreement, I would try 3♠ and assume that partner will take it as a cue bid, especially after you follow up with 4♥.

[pooltuna]

I would suggest 3♦ if system allows as a qbid for a control

[jmcw]

We're white, they're red:

 

♠AJx

♥KQ

♦x

♣KQ98xxx

 

Partner opened 1NT (15-17), I bid 2♠ and she bid 2NT which shows the ♣A in this case. What should I bid then?

 

I'm taking control.

Ask for keys.

 

If 1 play 5♣

2 play 6♣

If 3 ask for Kings and play 7 if 3 plus a King. All you need is a 3rd ♥ to pitch a ♠

[gwnn]

3♦ should show shortness. If it doesn't, you have to guess now.

[Hanoi5]

It's pairs, why would I want to play 5♣ when I can play 3NT?

[pooltuna]

It's pairs, why would I want to play 5♣ when I can play 3NT?

 

you don't but then 6♣ is probably odds on

[gwnn]

Because maybe 3NT goes down whilst 6♣ is cold. If 3♦ is shortness and partner bids 3NT, I am very happy to pass that.

[jmcw]

Because maybe 3NT goes down whilst 6♣ is cold. If 3♦ is shortness and partner bids 3NT, I am very happy to pass that.

 

Passing 3NT is not on my radar. For that to be right you need partner to have only 1 ace.

With 2 aces or more slam is a very strong favorite and I am not prepared to give up on that.

If I catch

 

Qxx

Jx

AQJxx

AJx

 

With 2 aces this about the worse hand partner could have, slam is likely down, but I'm willing to take the risk.

[andy_h]

I just want to keycard (or splinter then keycard) or just do something then keycard. I have a 15 count with a 7card suit and partner just told me about an awesome card! Ideally you would like to keycard below 4NT so you can bid 4NT to play after hearing 1 keycard opposite.

[mikeh]

Because maybe 3NT goes down whilst 6♣ is cold. If 3♦ is shortness and partner bids 3NT, I am very happy to pass that.

even at mps, I can't see passing 3N. I mean, we have a better hand than partner does, in any rational valuation method, and he opened a strong 1N!

 

Giving him only the club A, we can count 9 tricks and he has at least 11 hcp in addition.

 

Kxx Axx Axxx Axx is a sterile (tho control rich) 15 and we have 13 top tricks against any lead and any lie of the cards, so passing 3N seems, shall we say, a tad conservative.

 

I would bid 3♦ shortness, which is the common treatment, and over 3N would bid 4♣ to compell cue-bidding. If he bids 4♦, I keycard and, if we have them all, I ask for specific Kings.

 

if he bids 4♥, I bid 6♣.

 

If he bids 4N, then I reluctantly pass

 

 

Note that he shouldn't cue the diamond K over 4♣ if he owns only 1 Ace....imagine how bad his hand must be with at most Jx(x)(x) in hearts, no spade A and diamonds opposite my stiff/void.

[gwnn]

yes pass of 3n is bad, thanks for your help :) i was trying to answer the 3nt question but forgot to look at the hand.

[mikeh]

yes pass of 3n is bad, thanks for your help :) i was trying to answer the 3nt question but forgot to look at the hand.

been there, done that (many times) :D

[gnasher]

I would bid 3♦ shortness, which is the common treatment, and over 3N would bid 4♣ to compell cue-bidding. If he bids 4♦, I keycard and, if we have them all, I ask for specific Kings.

 

if he bids 4♥, I bid 6♣.

 

If he bids 4N, then I reluctantly pass

 

What if he bids 4♠? Now you want to sign off in 4NT. but you can't.

 

To avoid this problem, I think I would have bid Gerber on the first round. Opposite one ace I'd sign off in 4NT; opposite two I'd bid 6NT, and opposite three I'd bid 7NT. I'm not very interested in 6♣, because the field will mostly be in slam too.

[mikeh]

What if he bids 4♠? Now you want to sign off in 4NT. but you can't.

 

To avoid this problem, I think I would have bid Gerber on the first round. Opposite one ace I'd sign off in 4NT; opposite two I'd bid 6NT, and opposite three I'd bid 7NT. I'm not very interested in 6♣, because the field will mostly be in slam too.

Hmmm...he cooperates in a slam try holding no aces other than the diamond Ace, and at best Jx in hearts....KQxx Jx KQJ AJxx...gives him literally every missing high card and 4 card support for our 7 card suit so is the absolute best he could hold...I'm having trouble understanding why he cue bid this hand. To me, opposite diamond shortness, this is a 4N bid...partner has some values in hearts, since he is slamming with a stiff diamond and at most 10 hcp in the blacks.

[xxhong]

This is a simple RKC hand after the transfer. Holding 15 HCP, decent 7 card suit and partner showed CA, there is just no way to play 3NT.

 

We're white, they're red:

 

♠AJx

♥KQ

♦x

♣KQ98xxx

 

Partner opened 1NT (15-17), I bid 2♠ and she bid 2NT which shows the ♣A in this case. What should I bid then?

[VM1973]

I endorse the shortness showing bid. You have enough for 11.5 tricks as it is. The key is identifying potential wasted values in the diamonds.

[ggwhiz]

I'm taking control.

Ask for keys.

 

If 1 play 5♣

2 play 6♣

If 3 ask for Kings and play 7 if 3 plus a King. All you need is a 3rd ♥ to pitch a ♠

 

Same here but If only 1 I have no problem bidding 5♠ and passing the forced 5nt bid. It would take a miracle to beat it.

[gnasher]

Hmmm...he cooperates in a slam try holding no aces other than the diamond Ace, and at best Jx in hearts....KQxx Jx KQJ AJxx...gives him literally every missing high card and 4 card support for our 7 card suit so is the absolute best he could hold...I'm having trouble understanding why he cue bid this hand. To me, opposite diamond shortness, this is a 4N bid...partner has some values in hearts, since he is slamming with a stiff diamond and at most 10 hcp in the blacks.

Can't you have AJx Ax x KQ9xxxx, or Axx AKx x Kxxxxx?

 

Also, if partner is supposed to sign off with KQxx Jx KQJ AJxx, shouldn't he also sign off with Qxx Axx KJx AJx?

 

Partner's already said he's unsuitable, but then we initiated a cue-bidding sequence anyway. I think he has to have a really bad hand to sign off a second time.

[MrAce]

What if he bids 4♠? Now you want to sign off in 4NT. but you can't.

 

To avoid this problem, I think I would have bid Gerber on the first round. Opposite one ace I'd sign off in 4NT; opposite two I'd bid 6NT, and opposite three I'd bid 7NT. I'm not very interested in 6♣, because the field will mostly be in slam too.

 

Andy, why are you and Mike assuming this is a mp ? Did i miss something ?

 

EDIT : Nevermind , i just saw Hanoi later said it is pairs.

[Phil]

Xx of clubs on the 1st round is enough of a reason not to bid Gerber initially. Actually I don't really need any reason not to bid Gerber but that's a different matter.

 

Its clear to show the shortness. I'd have to bend over backwards to create a hand with two aces where slam doesn't make xxx Axx KQJxx Ax (but move a spade to a club and its cold again) however there is a large set of hands where 7 is excellent but only if partner knows about my shortness.

 

3♦ followed by a 4 level ace ask let's us out in 4N but I will bid at least 6 otherwise.

[gnasher]

Xx of clubs on the 1st round is enough of a reason not to bid Gerber initially.

Are you saying that you would want to stop out of slam opposite two small clubs and two aces? If so, can you provide an example of the sort of hand that you're trying to cater for, with a matching auction?

 

Actually I don't really need any reason not to bid Gerber but that's a different matter.

If you really mean that, it's a rather odd thing to say. If you had a hand where you only wanted to know how many aces your partner had, without giving away any other information, and you had a tool to do exactly that, why would you choose some other route?

 

I realise that this might not be that hand, but to eschew Gerber as a matter of principle would be ridiculous.

Edited September 15, 2011 by gnasher