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Declarer Play ONE


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OK, first thanks to inquiry who helped me to get through these unbelievable strings :), and I am appreciating the exchange with him if a hand is suitable etc.

I really like this idea, and I am convinced that it helps to improve.

Anything else upfront? Yes, if I am not mistaken someone else has already posted a play-problem. Nevertheless I hope that is ok that I am continuing in the original fashion.

 

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[hv=pc=n&s=sAQT5hAKT65dcQJT9&w=sh7dc&n=s4hJ42dAQT9cK8742&e=shdc&d=d&v=n&a=PP1HP2CDR2S3HP4DP4HP4NP5DP6CP6HPPP&p=H7]399|300[/hv]

 

You have reached 6, opps have bid both once. How do you make your partner with +1430 happy? Please be specific, and careful.

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OK, first thanks to inquiry who helped me to get through these unbelievable strings :), and I am appreciating the exchange with him if a hand is suitable etc.

 

I am given too much credit here. I did what administrators do, I answered questions and showed how to display hands and bidding in "BBO format" (using the handviewer tags, etc). The actual hands and any presentation and solutions presented by mck4711 are, of course, his and his alone. I salute anyone willing to present educational material in these forums for the benefit of all.

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Just so you don't think there's no interest, the problem is interesting but I have no clue. Too many things can go wrong and I don't see a good line that caters to more than one of them at a time. So, this is a good idea and I'll be watching the thread, even though I'm making no attempt to answer now :)
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Without answering the play question, I would like to comment on the auction.

 

South's redouble of 2C is usually used to show a strong hand with some interest in defending. In fact South has a strong hand with primary club support, and he should show the clubs over the redouble. South later bid blackwood in hearts, when the cards he is interested in are the AK of clubs, not the A of clubs and A of diamonds. If he had raised clubs earlier, the contract could have been 6C, and we wouldn't have had a play problem.

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I'm playing low at trick one (to cater for singleton Queen), then drawing trumps (they gotta split 3-2 or I'm sunk) and running trumps, pitching two diamonds from dummy.

 

Even so, five hearts, four clubs and two aces is only eleven tricks, and the spade finess is not working. If East gets in with the club Ace, he will lead spades through me and kill any endplay (or squeeze, because I need the spade Ace as an entry). So the club Ace must be with West. When West wins the club Ace and returns a club I am dead in water unless he also has the diamond King, in which case West is squeezed in diamonds and spades by dummy's fifth club.

 

UNLESS West has four clubs to his Ace (in which case Ace and another, East ruffing, would have set me, but I guess he didn't think of it), and holds off the first three rounds to deny me that fifth club. Since West overcalled in spades his partner can't have more than three (and please not jack third), so we come to the following ending with lead in dummy (having just taken the club King):

West must have retained at least two spades, or I have all the remaining tricks.

He must have retained two diamonds, or else I cash two diamonds, and then end play him in spades with his club Ace.

[hv=pc=n&s=saqt5hdcq&w=skjhdkxca&n=s4hdaqc42&e=sxxxhdxxc]399|300[/hv]

 

Now a club finishes West who must either concede two diamonds, a club and a spade or four spades(!), dummy never making his diamond Ace or the fifth club. If this isn't the solution, it ought to be!

 

wynsten

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I'm playing low at trick one (to cater for singleton Queen), then drawing trumps (they gotta split 3-2 or I'm sunk) and running trumps, pitching two diamonds from dummy.

 

Even so, five hearts, four clubs and two aces is only eleven tricks, and the spade finess is not working. If East gets in with the club Ace, he will lead spades through me and kill any endplay (or squeeze, because I need the spade Ace as an entry). So the club Ace must be with West. When West wins the club Ace and returns a club I am dead in water unless he also has the diamond King, in which case West is squeezed in diamonds and spades by dummy's fifth club.

 

UNLESS West has four clubs to his Ace (in which case Ace and another, East ruffing, would have set me, but I guess he didn't think of it), and holds off the first three rounds to deny me that fifth club. Since West overcalled in spades his partner can't have more than three (and please not jack third), so we come to the following ending with lead in dummy (having just taken the club King):

West must have retained at least two spades, or I have all the remaining tricks.

He must have retained two diamonds, or else I cash two diamonds, and then end play him in spades with his club Ace.

[hv=pc=n&s=saqt5hdcq&w=skjhdkxca&n=s4hdaqc42&e=sxxxhdxxc]399|300[/hv]

 

Now a club finishes West who must either concede two diamonds, a club and a spade or four spades(!), dummy never making his diamond Ace or the fifth club. If this isn't the solution, it ought to be!

 

wynsten

 

 

West did not overcall anything, his pd doubled and he bid 2 in response.

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Ok, here we go. I hope it doesnt look too messy, but I think that the pictures are good for a better understanding.

Contract: 6, W is leading .

 

[hv=pc=n&s=saqt5hakt65dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=s4hj42daqt9ck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv]

 

First we need to realize that trumps have to split 3-2. There is no way that we can make it if they split 4-1.

Where are out tricks? Well, we have 5, 1, 1 and 4. A -finesse would give us the 12th. Do we have to finesse? No. We can ruff a in dummy, meaning we have 5 in hand, 1 in dummy, 1, 1, and 4.

 

How do we play?

If we want to ruff we cant draw another 2 rounds of .

 

First idea: One more round (maybe Q drops), then A, ruffed. Then we get the following situation:

[hv=pc=n&s=sqthk65dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=shdaqt9ck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv]

 

We can get into hand with -ruff, draw the last , but A is still out. Who ever has it, is playing . Down.

 

Next idea: We first ruff . A, ruffed. Drawing now leads to the same situation as before, so what about in this situation?

[hv=pc=n&s=sqthak65dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=shjdaqt9ck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv]

One opponent wins. If he returns , we can ruff, get into the hand with -ruff, draw the last trump, and done. If he returns , we draw the last trump, and pitch 2 on A and 5th . And what about ? Obviously have to split 2-2 or A has to be singleton that this works.

 

What about ruffing TWICE? A, ruffed, A ( pitched), ruffed, ruffed leads to this situation, being in dummy:

[hv=pc=n&s=shak6dcqjt9&w=shdc&n=shdqtck8742&e=shdc]399|300[/hv]

If we now ruff , draw we are down (A is still out). If we ruff and play , someone is playing , and we short of , down. Meaning, again: .

 

Is this it? Almost, a last detail. What if the A is with East? Then there is the risk, that E has 5 or 6 and is leading one. We are in a guessing position. The risk might be low (W bid ), but maybe we can avoid this risk?

 

Lets repeat what we have already figured out:

- trump-split 3-2

- before we play , we need to play , therefore we need -split 2-2 or 3-1 with singleton A

 

What about playing then immediately at trick 2? This play covers also the (small) risk that E has A and 5 or 6 . And it gives the additional chance that opponents dont find -return at that early stage of the game, in case one opponent has 3rd A. Voila!

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The finesse is 50%.

If you have 9 cards, the remaining 4 cards split in 40% 2-2, in 50% they are 3-1. Meaning each 4th time A is single, =12.5%. This sums up to >50%, +additional chance - if are played early - that opps dont return .

 

E can hold Jxxx xxx KJxx Ax. Not strong enough? Give him on top Q. Not at all guaranteed that K is with E.

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The finesse is 50%.

Given the bidding I would say more then 50%
If you have 9 cards, the remaining 4 cards split in 40% 2-2, in 50% they are 3-1. Meaning each 4th time A is single, =12.5%. This sums up to >50%, +additional chance - if are played early - that opps dont return .
I would think 2-2 split is less likely after the bidding

E can hold Jxxx xxx KJxx Ax. Not strong enough? Give him on top Q. Not at all guaranteed that K is with E.

I don't understand this. You play trump until you got opps trump and then cross in (you don't need to trump a if you finesses )
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How do you get to the table? The only entry for doing the finesse would be J. Maybe I should have written in this way:

 

I have the choice of doing the finesse, or playing for 2-2 or A single. My only entry for doing the finesse is J. If it holds I can still choose what is the better play. In case E should cover I have to rely on the -holding. :)

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How do you get to the table? The only entry for doing the finesse would be J. Maybe I should have written in this way:

 

I have the choice of doing the finesse, or playing for 2-2 or A single. My only entry for doing the finesse is J. If it holds I can still choose what is the better play. In case E should cover I have to rely on the -holding. :)

with K
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For this you need 2-2 or A singleton. But if you have this you dont need the finesse any more...

 

Playing J at trick one has one additional risk:

If W has 4th Q, nothing you can do; if E has 4th Q, nothing you can you; but there is one 4-1 distribution you can protect against: E has Q singleton. In this case you can still win if you play low from dummy. All you need is the -distribution mentioned earlier.

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OK, this is my first problem, it might be that I took some shortcuts and that there is some space for improvement...

 

From the very start we have two ways of playing for the 12th trick, the finesse or ruffing.

 

IMO the finesse has a simple 50% chance. Yes, it might be that E does X only with KJxx in , we dont know. But in case we want to finesse we come to a PRACTICAL problem. We need to enter the dummy, either via J or K. Playing J is IMO dangerous because playing low protects us against Q singleton with E (mentioned earlier). Meaning we play from dummy at trick 1. 2nd option is then K. But as already explained earlier playing before requires that either split 2-2 or A is singleton.

 

But in this case then we DO NOT NEED anymore the finesse. So, why to take an - now unnecessary - risk? Therefore the line of play is clearly via ruffing .

 

Even from a mathematical point of view this line of play is supported:

Finesse: 50%, you may argue that the probability is higher, that E needs to have K, and we can for sure finesse (in this case look at the practical problem)

Ruffing: around 58%: 40% (2-2) + 12.5% (A singleton) + 5.6% (4-1 distribution with Q singleton, 28% 4-1).

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I'm not sure I understood the solution. Could you explain how you play when hearts are 4-1 with a Q singleton?

 

He takes Q with A in hand, plays , he is hoping for 2-2 or 3-1 A stiff or 3-1 they can not find ruff. Assume they took A and

 

1- They played another , he wins with J, A and ruff, ruff to hand clear trumps and claim

 

2- They played back, then it must be 2-2 , he takes and plays as above

 

3-They played , wins A, cashes J, A and ruff, ruff again, basically same line

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Note: I don't want to criticize your problem or solution. I find this defense and play problems interesting.

OK, this is my first problem, it might be that I took some shortcuts and that there is some space for improvement...

 

From the very start we have two ways of playing for the 12th trick, the finesse or ruffing.

 

IMO the finesse has a simple 50% chance. Yes, it might be that E does X only with KJxx in , we dont know. But in case we want to finesse we come to a PRACTICAL problem. We need to enter the dummy, either via J or K. Playing J is IMO dangerous because playing low protects us against Q singleton with E (mentioned earlier). Meaning we play from dummy at trick 1. 2nd option is then K. But as already explained earlier playing before requires that either split 2-2 or A is singleton.

 

But in this case then we DO NOT NEED anymore the finesse. So, why to take an - now unnecessary - risk? Therefore the line of play is clearly via ruffing .

 

Even from a mathematical point of view this line of play is supported:

Finesse: 50%, you may argue that the probability is higher, that E needs to have K, and we can for sure finesse (in this case look at the practical problem)

Ruffing: around 58%: 40% (2-2) + 12.5% (A singleton) + 5.6% (4-1 distribution with Q singleton, 28% 4-1).

I still don't understand why the -finesse needs 2-2:

You play 3 rounds of followed by 3 rounds of . If are 3-1 then A will be out now.

You can then overtake 9 with K and discard a on the 5th and a on A. And end with -finesse.

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Here it is trick by trick:

 

Trick 1: 7, low, low, T

Trick 2: Q, low from dummy, one opp wins

Now a:

Trick 3: return, winning in hand (2-2)

Trick 4: A

Trick 5: ruff

Trick 6: ruff

Trick 7/8: drawing and claim

Now b:

Trick 3: return (A singleton), winning with A, pitching

Trick 4: see above

Now c:

Trick 3: return (A singleton), winning with A

Trick 4: ruff

Trick 5: ruff

Trick 6/7: drawing and claim

Now d:

Trick 3: return, winning in hand with A

Trick 4: see above

 

If Q singleton:

Trick 1: 7, low, Q, A

Trick 2:

Trick 3: return

Trick 4: A

Trick 5: ruff

Trick 6: J

Trick 7: ruff

Trick 8/9: drawing and claim

 

If W should win and return

Trick 3: , J, doesnt matter, low

Trick 4: to the A

Trick 5: ruff

Trick 6: ruff

Trick 7/8: drawing and claim

 

Important: Only small from dummy at trick1 protects against 4-1 with Q singleton. If you play the J then W has 98x behing ATxx is making one trick.

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