mr1303 Posted October 1, 2004 Report Share Posted October 1, 2004 Hi everyone. Last night I was playing Khamerashi, a strongly modified strong club system, when 1D promises 0 diamonds (if 4405 shape). The following auction happened: P RHO Me LHO1D 2D ? I asked what 2D was, and LHO said it was natural, showing diamonds. I held: [hv=s=s98xxhqjxdxxcakxx]133|100|[/hv] Any ideas what I should do here, and what bids should mean in this situation. This isn't one they teach you at bridge school. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben47 Posted October 1, 2004 Report Share Posted October 1, 2004 Assume partner did not open any suit but just a general something thing. I get this auction a lot in Polish Club (but with ♣ of course). Double is negative (my bid on this hand) 2M is natural (and non-forcing if you play negative free bids) 3♦ asks for a stopper for 3NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 1, 2004 Report Share Posted October 1, 2004 Yeah, Dbl as negative is the easiest use. Just don't consider that 1♦ as real, but just some 'points'... If partner has his ♦s, he can still pass it in :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 1, 2004 Report Share Posted October 1, 2004 What notrump interval (if any) is included in 1♦? If 11-12 (as in Cinderella) then I might pass this one, depending on scoring and vulnerability. Otherwise it's a clear negative double. Btw, if 1♦ can be an 11-12 NT, I would play negative freebids in this situation (might consider transfer freebids against other overcalls). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flame Posted October 1, 2004 Report Share Posted October 1, 2004 Double, why not ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.