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Finding right slam level


bd71

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[hv=pc=n&s=shak76da5432caj87&n=saq8hqdkqj7ckq963]133|200[/hv]

 

Matchpoints. Playing vanilla 2/1.

 

Maybe not a hard one, but do you get to 7 or even 7NT? And how?

I don't know what vanilla 2/1 uses 1-3 for. We use it as opening hand Hxxx+ HHxxx (H = AKQ) or better or the old fashioned single suited rock crusher.

 

So I'd bid

 

1-3

3-3 (anything other than 3N/4 confirms this is the fit type hand and is a cue)

4(exclusion)-5(1 or 4)

5(Q ?)-5(yes and A)

7N (5 diamonds, 5 clubs, 2 hearts and a spade)

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I'm assuming that in "vanilla 2/1" you are using strong jump shifts. Assuming South opens 1 (why wouldn't he) and North rebids 3 showing a real club suit and at least an AK above a minimum opener (19 HCPs / 36 ZPs) that it should be easy.

 

1-3

4-4

4NT-5 0,3 with the K and K counting as key cards and it should be pretty easy.

 

Using ZPs South will count his hand as worth 38, opposite partner's 36+ and will reach 74, which is supposedly worth 14.4 tricks, which is about right I think (5 clubs, 5 diamonds, 3 hearts, and the A = 14) so plenty to spare.

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[hv=pc=n&s=shak76da5432caj87&n=saq8hqdkqj7ckq963]133|200[/hv]

 

Matchpoints. Playing vanilla 2/1.

 

Maybe not a hard one, but do you get to 7 or even 7NT? And how?

Hardy Style for the 1D - 2C! ( 2/1 GF ):

 

1D - 2C! ( 2/1 GF )

2D ( 1st priority is to show 5+d ) - 4D! ( Minorwood; I'm ready to "ask" )

??

... 5D! = even ( 0 or 2 )+ void somewhere

... 5H! = odd ( 1 or 3 ) + Ht void

... 5S! = odd + Sp void

... 6C! = odd + Cl void

 

After:

5S! ( gotta be 3 keys + Sp void ) - 6C! ( K-ask; showing all key cards and dQ; 5NT would be dQ-ask )

6H! ( hK; cheapest bid K ) - 7D ( counting: 1s, 3h, 4d, 3c and 2 Sp-ruffs )

 

[ Responder doesn't know about the running Cl suit for a cold 7NT ] .

 

[ Responder isn't afraid to use the 6C! ( K-ask ) because the only outstanding K is the hK;

with no outside K's, the reply would be 6D ] .

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Hardy Style for the 1D - 2C! ( 2/1 GF ):

 

1D - 2C! ( 2/1 GF )

2D ( 1st priority is to show 5+d ) - 4D! ( Minorwood; I'm ready to "ask" )

??

... 5D! = even ( 0 or 2 )+ void somewhere

... 5H! = odd ( 1 or 3 ) + Ht void

... 5S! = odd + Sp void

... 6C! = odd + Cl void

 

After:

5S! ( gotta be 3 keys + Sp void ) - 6C! ( K-ask; showing all key cards and dQ; 5NT would be dQ-ask )

6H! ( hK; cheapest bid K ) - 7D ( counting: 1s, 3h, 4d, 3c and 2 Sp-ruffs )

 

[ Responder doesn't know about the running Cl suit for a cold 7NT ] .

 

[ Responder isn't afraid to use the 6C! ( K-ask ) because the only outstanding K is the hK;

with no outside K's, the reply would be 6D ] .

Is 2 game forcing over 1 in vanilla 2/1?

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Some very strange auctions have been posted. I think the obvious start is

1
-2

3

after which North can just bid Keycard twice followed by 7NT.

 

It's slightly more complex after an inverted raise, because it may not be clear that the clubs are solid. If North thinks that the clubs are KQxxx opposite Axx, he might settle for 7 in a weak field.

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Some very strange auctions have been posted. I think the obvious start is

1
-2

3

after which North can just bid Keycard twice followed by 7NT.

This makes it easy (assuming South is the opener).

 

For those who believe the 3S splinter over 2C should show this pattern, but no extra strength above a minimum they can just bid 3C; North will still bid Keycard twice and end in the same 7NT.

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  • 2 weeks later...

For 2/1 I think I agree with whereagles - after 1D - 2C - 2H there is plenty of space and we are already in the slam zone. It would be disappointing not to reach the top spot thereafter. Outside of 2/1, I would bid this

 

1D = 10-17, 4+ diamonds, unbal

... - 1H = INV+ relay

2C = max, 4+ clubs, 0-3 spades, GF

... - 2D = relay

4C = 0454, 7 controls

... - 7NT

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