wyman Posted August 28, 2011 Author Report Share Posted August 28, 2011 Makes sense. So in this case, what would you think is the difference between AK2 and AKJ? Is this a 'light preference for ♣, but no quick entry?' Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted August 28, 2011 Report Share Posted August 28, 2011 East can have a balanced hand with five diamonds and a hand too strong for a simple 1NT overcall. In fact, a balanced hand too strong for a notrump overcall is the hand type he probably (and actually) holds.I suppose it depends what you mean by "balanced". If East has five diamonds, North has only three. If North has only three diamonds, systemically he must be 4=4=3=2. That makes East 1=3=5=4. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted August 28, 2011 Report Share Posted August 28, 2011 Makes sense. So in this case, what would you think is the difference between AK2 and AKJ? Is this a 'light preference for ♣, but no quick entry?'A-K-J means spadesK-A-2 means clubsA-K-2 and K-A-J both mean no preference, but I don't know what the difference is. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted August 28, 2011 Report Share Posted August 28, 2011 I am a fairly simple soul when it comes to defensive signals. And I find that it is an attitude that (for me) tends to pay off, although I accept that it could just be a reflection of my own limitations and, dare I suggest it, those of my partners. So on a personal level I tend to dismiss signals that experts say must mean this or that in a particular situation that arises in one in a billion hands on the grounds that it is the only logical meaning of the sequence of plays in the context of that one hand. I guess this means that, on occasion, I play signals that are redundant in context of hand, which is a price that I willingly pay for the guarantee of absence of misinterpretation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted August 29, 2011 Report Share Posted August 29, 2011 I realise that it has nothing to do with the question, but am I alone in finding it slightly odd that West would cue 2D with a 4 count, and his partner bid a passive NF 2H bid with a 19 count? 2♦ was obviously not a standart cue , but an artificial bid to show 4-4 majors and a weak hand ? I am just guessing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted August 29, 2011 Report Share Posted August 29, 2011 A-K-J means spadesK-A-2 means clubsA-K-2 and K-A-J both mean no preference, but I don't know what the difference is.On second thoughts, K-A-J probably just means that when he won the king he hadn't decided what to do, but now he wants a spade return. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted August 29, 2011 Report Share Posted August 29, 2011 On second thoughts, K-A-J probably just means that when he won the king he hadn't decided what to do, but now he wants a spade return.Maybe for a normal player, but I think we should assume that world class players plan ahead before they do anything, and every card has a meaning if it possibly can. In some cases he may not know what he'll want until he sees the cards played to trick 2, but that falls into my "if it possibly can" qualifier. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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