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How do you bid these two?


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[hv=pc=n&w=st942hqj6dakqct32&e=sa87hat72d7cakqj4&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1d(11-15%20could%20be%20singleton)p2cp]266|200[/hv]

 

Although this wasn't exactly my start (my partner bid 1 over 1) I reached a point where partner made a quantitative bid, should I had accepted? How would you bid and what contract would you reach?

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I think after the 1H start you can probably reach slam, for example 1D - 1H; 1N - 2D; 2S - 3C; 4C followed by RKC. It is (arguably) harder after the 2C response if you play 2NT as the 11-13 hand - the auction is already quite high. If you play a method where the balanced hand goes through 2D it may be easier, on this hand anyway. I personally would not accept a quantitative invite with the West hand, assuming a standard 11-13 range.

 

For my own bidding it would start with a weak NT so probably not so useful for you. East would show slam interest with 5+ clubs and 4 hearts, West a minimum with club support. Then East can key card to slam. A possible auction is: 1N - 2S!; 2N - 3D!; 4C - 4D!; 4H! - 6C.

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It depends a lot on agreements. Me and my partner have agreed to start with 1 on such hands. With a 4 card Major we only bid 1-2m with 6m-4M, otherwise the Major fit may be lost. Also opener's rebid may be important: do you always rebid 1 when holding a 4 card , or only with unbalanced hands, or are you free to choose?

 

So I'd start:

1 - 1 (prec ; nat)

1 - 2 (4 may be bal ; GF relay)

2 - 3 (3 ; 5)

 

I'm not sure if opener should bid 3NT or 4 with this hand. If he bids 4, then East will go to slam very easily. If he bids 3NT on the other hand, I think East may bid 4NT and that will be the end of the auction.

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Hi,

 

I would start with 1-1

1 -2 (artificial asking for 3 hearts, the only forcing bid)

2 (minimum 3 hearts) - 3 (natural GF, either a 5card suit or a balanced hand without stopper)

3NT (showing a very good stopper)

 

Now responder can try 4 RKCB for sighning off in 4NT if he hears 4 (p I dont want to play slam in ). Having already shown a minimum hand and having 3 clubs, opener will certainly respond 4 1/4 keycards and a small slam will be reached.

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Assume you hold the East hand and West shows a balanced weak notrump one way or another in the bidding. Would you ever want to stop below slam?

If you believe in opening bad balanced 11 HCP hands you will have to pay a price somewhere. This is less of a bidding problem but a matter of hand evaluation.

A quantitative invite by East is an error in judgment. The only bidding problem I can see is whether to play 6 or 6NT once opener has shown a balanced minimum hand.

I would simply bid 6 eventually at IMPs and 6NT at pairs or BAM.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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So, looking at everything, the question is: What's your NT range at all vul?

 

If it's 13-15, if I've shown a balanced hand, I'm accepting any invitation. If it's 14-16, probably so. at least if partner's shown both rounds. If it's 15-17, then probably I'm not opening bad 11 balanced, as Rainer says, so while I'm not accepting anything on "points", partner shouldn't be asking. If it's 10-12 or 11-13, I opened 1NT, not 1 :-).

 

My question is, of course, after 1-2, 2NT-3, can you push the auction to a point where someone is making a quantitative call - which is why people are commenting on how they have to bid 1 with this hand.

 

Call me a pessimist - I look at this hand and recoil at 6NT - if the finesse is on, sure it's 1440 over 1370; but if it's off, it's 3 or 400 over 100 and I don't think that "the field" is going to auto-get to slam. I guess it's the same thing - I'm gambling 12 into 9 vs 0 into 3; but still. BAM - yeah, 6NT, sure. But a straightup MP game? I'll aim for A+.

 

Not that I'm likely to be given the choice - I expect the only positive answer I'll be able to reasonably give to a quantitative ask is 6NT. But that's a fault of my bidding and system, not my belief in the rightness of 6NT.

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