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What does 4NT in this sequence imply?


richrf

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Hi Rich and welcome to the forums :)

 

I can't see a definition of this 3 bid in SAYC (defined at http://www.acbl.org/documentlibrary/play/SP3%20(bk)%20single%20pages.pdf). However, most people play 3 as showing 4 hearts and 5 spades, and forcing to game. In that case, opener's 3N shows less than 3 spades and responder's 4NT should be quantitative (around about 16 points with probably 5422).

 

3 shouldn't really be a slam try with only hearts since in SAYC you can bid 3 directly over 1NT. However, in case it does mean that, I guess 4NT could be either quantitative or keycard for hearts. Personally I am a big fan of quantitative 4NT's so I would say this is what we have on our hands.

 

On a more general note, this seems to be a classical quantitative situation: responder was showing whatever it was he was trying to show, but opener said "no thanks pard let's play 3NT", then responder says "well OK but maybe we could play 6NT? I have some serious extras here". This kind of bidding occurs a lot when one guy bids 3NT to play and the other bids 4NT. Indeed many people teach the absolute rule "if one player bids 3NT to play, 4NT is always quantitative!", which I think is dead on.

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this should be quantitative. Most likely North is 3-2 in the majors and South is 4-5.

 

If South is 4-6 in the majors and want to be in slam if we have enough aces then unfortunately

1NT-2

2-2*

is not forcing. So it is a little tricky. Maybe

1NT-2

2-4*

is Gerber?

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I've had a partner who surprised me by saying that there are 6 different ways to show a heart one-suiter that is at least interested in game opposite a standard strong NT:

 

1NT-2

2-3

    -4

 

1NT-3

1NT-4

 

and, surprising me slightly:

 

1NT-2

2-3

      -4

 

He then asked me what I would like each of these bids to mean (he liked to make subtle distinction with regards to suit quality). So I think there is at least some people who use this sequence as a one-suiter. I don't know how common it is.

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this should be quantitative. Most likely North is 3-2 in the majors and South is 4-5.

 

If South is 4-6 in the majors and want to be in slam if we have enough aces then unfortunately

1NT-2

2-2*

is not forcing. So it is a little tricky. Maybe

1NT-2

2-4*

is Gerber?

There are many options with 4-6.

 

Delay Texas without slam interest

OP auction followed by 4M (the six-bagger) as mild slam try for that major in the 6-2 fit

OP auction, then 4m, implying 4-6, slammish and a control. After that, RKC for the major.

op auction, then 4 other major as Kickback or "underwood"?

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For me Smolen is standard (here 3 showing GF with 4 and 5+). After the signoff, responder can retransfer to if he has 6 of them, or bid a minor naturally. He didn't do any of this, so I'd say he has a 5=4=2=2 exactly. 4NT is abused by many bridgeplayers as blackwood, and this is one of those situations. This is better played as quantitative, but for many intermediate players it would be blacky.

 

At first sight, I'd say responder has a 5=4=2=2 with around 16HCP.

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