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20 members have voted

  1. 1. ATB

    • West 100%
    • Mostly West
    • 50-50
      0
    • Mostly East
    • East 100%
      0
    • No blame


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Me and partner had a big disagreement on this hand. We were playing precision, we open pretty much all 11-counts in 1st and 2nd seat, in 3rd seat we may be light (1M always shows 5+M, it's never done with 4).

 

[hv=pc=n&s=st5h976dkq75cj753&w=skqj86hqdt863ckt8&n=sa742haj43da2c642&e=s93hkt852dj94caq9&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=pp1sp2hppp]399|300[/hv]

 

2-2 was obviously a bottom, please give comments on the auction and ATB.

 

EDIT: for clarification to hog, we play weak two's, usually with 6 card suit, and we're not crazy when vul. ;)

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East is a passed hand, what could partner do over 1NT that wouldn't allow him to find the heart fit (in case there's one)? Of course West could/should bid over 2 since he could have only a 5-1 fit but then again what if East has 6+ ugly hearts and rebids them over 2 (or worse, s/he passes 2and they end up in a 5-1 fit when they were in a 6-1!).

 

So I voted mainly East.

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East is a passed hand, what could partner do over 1NT that wouldn't allow him to find the heart fit (in case there's one)? Of course West could/should bid over 2 since he could have only a 5-1 fit but then again what if East has 6+ ugly hearts and rebids them over 2 (or worse, s/he passes 2and they end up in a 5-1 fit when they were in a 6-1!).

 

So I voted mainly East.

 

U can bid after 1 NT of course, but this is not the same thing as bidding direct 2. East doesnt know pd opened weak yet and i think 2 is pretty normal, at least for me. He has the maximum of a passed hand and 5 card and tolerance to 2.

 

For example;

 

x

KJTxx

xx

Jxxxx

 

x

JTxxxx

xx

Kxxx

 

I'd bid 1 NT and bid 2 if pd rebids 2.

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I'm in the no blame camp. 1 is obvious, and 2 is reasonable (and what I'd likely do at the table), and pass is reasonable (and likely what I'd do at the table - although the one I feel least good about). You've swung the board, now hope they had something like +110 or +100 and you are only down 1 (or on a really lucky day make).
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I was East, since I get most blame there must be something wrong with my reasoning. Let me explain what I was thinking.

 

I didn't open 2, so I can't have a decent hand with a good 6 card suit. With a weak hand and 6 I bid 1NT followed by 2 (showing the weakness). Therefore 2, being constructive, should be a good 5 card suit or a poor 6 card suit (in both cases opener better rebids 2 with his current hand). Is there any reason to bid 2 instead of 1NT? Imo yes, opener can easily have 13-15HCP with a 5=3=4=1 or 5=3=1=4 distribution. If I bid 1NT, opener would rebid 2m and I'll correct to 2. We may have an easy 4 when partner has the singleton (although unlikely, opps will probably interfere) or 3 may be a better contract when partner has the singleton .

 

Where did I go wrong?

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i blame west - he's got a decent spade suit but might not have any entries to make any tricks in a heart contract. better to make spades trumps. of course that might end up reversing the problem and getting cut off from dummy's hearts tricks, but we haven't seen dummy yet.
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The 1 opening and the 2 response are normal.

 

The pass of 2 is not unreasonable, but it is the only call that is open to question. West might bid 2 over 2. So, if there is any blame to assign on this hand, it is to West.

 

But seriously, if one agrees that passing 2 is a reasonable action, then we are assigning blame based solely on the result, not on the merits of the action. So I would say that neither East nor West is to blame.

 

Sometimes you are the windshield, and sometimes you are the bug.

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I would not bid 2.....ever!, therefore I blame West 100%.

 

Opposite a third seat opener, I think 1NT should be automatic with tolerance. Since you didn't open 2, or 2 in 1st seat then bidding 2 of a red suit is virtually impossible!

 

If West bids 1NT then East should pass and go from there.

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I blame W for the reason he opened.

 

It is a very bad hand being vulnerable with a passed partner.I think that if LHO will pass too.the result will be at least 40% for E-W.

Strictly in this board, 2 is -1 , so 2sp rebid is not a big deal.

True, E-W make 8 trics in NT, but what if N has the 10 or even the 8?

If spades don't run , with a club lead N-S make +200.

But N-S has nothing to play!

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I would not bid 2.....ever!, therefore I blame West 100%.

 

Opposite a third seat opener, I think 1NT should be automatic with tolerance. Since you didn't open 2, or 2 in 1st seat then bidding 2 of a red suit is virtually impossible!

 

If West bids 1NT then East should pass and go from there.

 

 

West did not bid 2.

 

But anyway, you should not bid with paranoia of pd opening light in 3rd seat, just because he may once in a while. Unless he has the habbit of opening light in 3rd seat, just for the sake of opening light frequently. He may have a decent hand and u may be giving him comfort by 2 bid in another hand, besides you are kinda protected with your initial pass.

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IMO West 5%. Bad luck 95%.

1 and 2 seem reasonable. As a passed hand, when would you bid 2, if you don't with xx Kxxxx Jxx AQx

Opposite a typical Axxxx QJx xx Kxx, plays better than no-trump.

Opposite as little as AKxxx QJx xx Kxx game is reasonable.

West gets 5% for his failure to remove partner from a likely 5-1 fit. Although I confess I would pass, too.

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Whatever inferences East thinks his partner has from the failure to open 1 or 2H originally do not really excuse bidding 2H/1S with a mediocre five-bagger.

 

If East were not a passed hand, he could not bid 2H/1S because he lacks the power to do so. He would have bid 1NT...forcing or semi forcing or whatever. I see no reason to do something different on this hand, especially if third seat can be really light.

 

"But I Was a Passed Hand" should be the title of someone's book including a string of disasters with that theme.

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If East were not a passed hand, he could not bid 2H/1S because he lacks the power to do so. He would have bid 1NT...forcing or semi forcing or whatever. I see no reason to do something different on this hand, especially if third seat can be really light.

So according to you, if you play basic 2/1 GF, you can never bid a 2/1 with a passed hand because you lack the power you need after a 1st/2nd seat opening? :blink:

 

Systems change according to seat, 1-2 is GF, but Pass-1-2 shows a maximum passed hand (you can't be much stronger than that anyway). There's no need to have no meaning for this auction because you can't have the values.

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Not at all. There are passed hands with could bid 2H/1S. But, the given hand isn't one of them. It has 2-card spade tolerance, and the bid takes up a lot of room.

 

Actually, for people who open weak two's at every opportunity with little concern about suit quality and honor cards scattered over the rest of their hand --probably there aren't any hands which should bid 2/1 as a passed hand.

 

X QXXXXXX AXX KX comes to mind, unless I am one of those who believe in jerking partner around with a 3-bid in first seat.

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If East were not a passed hand, he could not bid 2H/1S because he lacks the power to do so. He would have bid 1NT...forcing or semi forcing or whatever. I see no reason to do something different on this hand, especially if third seat can be really light.

Why isn't the fact that 1NT is no longer forcing or semi-forcing a reason to do something different?

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