Jump to content

Negative free bids


Recommended Posts

However, it is also true the other way around:

 

1-(2)-?

 

AQT9x

Qxx

KJxx

x

 

If you start with a double and they raise to 5 clubs, it will be hard to show both the spades and diamond support.

In this case, not bidding your longer suit result in helping opps to preempt you.

Comments ?

 

 

 

This hand is easy. Just bid 3. Play jump fits with NFB.

A jump fit by a non passed hand is forcing back to opener's suit.

Can be passed if made by a passed hand, through this should be rare.

 

It can't be that easy if it took you more than nine years to come up with a solution!

 

In fact, I don't agree with your solution. Whilst it's nice to have fit jumps available (and I do play 3 as fit when 2 is forcing), there's a more important meaning for 3 here. When 2 is non-forcing, 3 (or a 3 transfer to 3) should show a game-forcing single-suiter to take some of the strain away from double.

  • Upvote 2
Link to comment
Share on other sites

  • 1 month later...

It can't be that easy if it took you more than nine years to come up with a solution!

 

In fact, I don't agree with your solution. Whilst it's nice to have fit jumps available (and I do play 3 as fit when 2 is forcing), there's a more important meaning for 3 here. When 2 is non-forcing, 3 (or a 3 transfer to 3) should show a game-forcing single-suiter to take some of the strain away from double.

 

Didn't take 9 years to find the solution. Ed Manfield suggested this treatment in 1977. Took 9 years to find this thread.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Question 1

Robson/Segal in their book "Partnership bidding" say they hate NFB but do not enetr details.

Could you specify why do you like/dislike NFB ?

I like to play NFB, if the new suit bid is at the two level.

A sensible alternative is to play 2/2 as NFB and nothing else

Question 2

(my viewpoint)

A friend of mine said that it is better to show directly your suit when u are weak rather than when you are strong and can afford rebidding later, because this is more disruptive againt opps.

 

However, it is also true the other way around:

 

1-(2)-?

 

AQT9x

Qxx

KJxx

x

 

If you start with a double and they raise to 5 clubs, it will be hard to show both the spades and diamond support.

In this case, not bidding your longer suit result in helping opps to preempt you.

Comments ?

This is the heart of the matter, but bringing this argument up against NFB is very lopsided.

When are opponents more likely to preempt you effectively and what is the greater danger?

 

1) When your side has game forcing HCP values and opponents take an advanced sacrifice?

Since opponents are outgunned at the HCP department, they will need a huge fit. Consequence you have a good fit somewhere.

Note this often helps you to judge your slam potential when you get the information that your partner is short in opponents suit.

 

When you play NFB you should play jump shifts to the three level as strong one suiters.

Now let us assume you hold your example hand.

 

1-(2)-?

 

AQT9x

Qxx

KJxx

x

 

If a preempt occurs to 5 (unlikely) you know they have a good fit.

You have a choice between 5 and 5 and DBL.

 

I probably settle for 5 and partner will know I must have something in the majors, because I did not start with 3, but I can not have a very long or strong major suit, else I would have jumped there.

I can not be weak either as I would have preempted immediately.

 

2) The HCP strength between both sides is more balanced but opponents have found their fit first?

 

In case 1) you can afford to take a decision at a high level.

In case 2) you might bury your fit when you have to negative double with the wrong sort of distribution. This is the type of stuff where a double game swing might go to our opponents.

 

So I believe it is worse, having no bid with a constructive hand, but which should not force, e.g

 

Qxx

KJT9x

Kx

xxx

 

In standard you either have to overbid with 2 or you have to double.

Say you double and the bidding continues:

 

1-(2)-X-(4)-4-(X)-?

 

Good luck to you.

It is much more dangerous to show unspecific distribution when you hold moderate values.

 

Rainer Herrmann

  • Upvote 1
Link to comment
Share on other sites

1-(2)-?

 

Here we also use transfer (loosing the natural 2):

- 2: xfer (weak or GF)

- 2: xfer (weak or GF)

- DBL: Take-out

 

Other bids we use here:

- 2: Weak, 5c, 4c

- 2NT: very weak with -support

- 3: Inv+ with -support

- 3: 6-9 with -support

- 3/3: Invite with 6-card /

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...