Does this lead problem have an obvious solution?

[Cascade]

[hv=pc=n&s=saj873ht843d4cqt9&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=p1d1s4d(RKCB)5sp(even)p6dppp]133|200[/hv]

 

2♠ in first seat would have been an aggressive weak two - five or six spades 5-10 or so.

[paulg]

I can only see myself leading the ace of spades. I think it is the obvious choice although this may not be the 'obvious solution' that the setter is looking for.

[whereagles]

The ace seems like an ok start to me as well.

[phil_20686]

There is a key piece of information missing - how good are your opponents. If WC opponents bid like this it will mean something different from your random fish in a club for whom bidding keycard is the only way to bid a slam. If they had many constructive things they could do with their hand then this kind of leap may well indicate a non spade weakness.

[Cascade]

There is a key piece of information missing - how good are your opponents. If WC opponents bid like this it will mean something different from your random fish in a club for whom bidding keycard is the only way to bid a slam. If they had many constructive things they could do with their hand then this kind of leap may well indicate a non spade weakness.

 

The hand is from the Zone 6 Championships (APBF).

[Trumpace]

Don't understand the club lead.

 

Doesn't the SA rate to cash? The 6D bidder also bid rkcb, and it is not as if declarer needs to establish any tricks in spades for a club discard. Shouldn't we be afraid of the spade trick going away on hearts/clubs?

 

If club lead does set up a trick for us, the only time it gains is when declarer _needs_ to knock out the SA. Since SA rates to cash, in any other case (when partner gets in to cash a club), the SA lead is at least as good as a club.

 

What am I missing?

[blackshoe]

The poll is set up incorrectly. The proper answer to the question posed in the subject is "yes". I suppose you could add "the solution is left as an exercise for the original poster". ;)

[phil_20686]

did west have 4!s= exclusion available?

 

I feel like when a good player bids like this he probably has a spade void and three little clubs along with a cashing heart suit. He is probably trying to bluff you into leading a spade in the case where you have two clubs to cash. He may also be worred taht you will ahve a profitable sacrifice in 6/7 spades if he gives you time to get your hands across.

 

I am expecting something like: - AKJTx QJxxx xxx perhaps. Of course he could be down the middle with something like x AKJTx QJxxx Ax in which case you probably aren't beating this. I feel like if he has bid this way in a "down the middle" type auction he will have a control in every suit. Obviously partner cannot have the ace of clubs unless lho has a black suit void.

 

I would like to try a club lead, but am prepared to apologise when this is wrong and partner had a well placed heart K or something.

[Cascade]

The poll is set up incorrectly. The proper answer to the question posed in the subject is "yes". I suppose you could add "the solution is left as an exercise for the original poster". ;)

 

The poll question is "what do you lead?"

 

This does not have to coincide with the thread title which was supposed to stir discussion about whether the solution to the lead problem is obvious.

[Cascade]

did west have 4!s= exclusion available?

 

I can't be sure but they did use or rather have a misunderstanding about the use of exclusion on another board in this match.

[nigel_k]

Can we infer from partner's failure to open that they have some length in hearts? In that case a club is unlikely to be necessary. A heart could be right but I would always lead ♠A.