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26 members have voted

  1. 1. How do you play jump shift?

    • Strong (17-18 Soloway style)
    • Weak
    • Both, varies as to whom I'm playing with
    • Both, " but I prefer strong
    • Both, " but I prefer weak
    • I have another meaning for the bid (explain)


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HOg makes an excellent point even if his facts are off a bit.

 

 

His main point know bergen in full...etc....excellent pt

 

 

btw I dont play his version if it exists of bergen...

 

It iss hard to defend bergen if we cannot even agree what it is.

 

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in any point the huge point of bergen is LOTT.

 

If you think LOTT is junk science then no reason to play bergen

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otoh if you think bergen really helps you on comp hands...ok......

 

Uh Mike?! I didn't claim that what I played was Bergen or anything like it. It is what I play with my partners in certain partnerships.

 

Kathryn, this is played by a number of partnerships in my area.

1M 2NT = invit, or 16-17 flat raise or 14-17 spl

1M 3NT = 12-15 flat raise

1M double jump = 10-13 or 18+ spl

 

After 1M 2NT

opener signs off with a min, makes a long suit trial, (or s suit trial if you refer), bids 4M t/p 3NT with 18-19 flat, or makes a general enquiry with 3C - which can also be a long suit trial:

resp bids 3/4 M with limit -4 over a lst acceptance, NTs with the bal raise or jumps with the splinter

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Uh Mike?! I didn't claim that what I played was Bergen or anything like it. It is what I play with my partners in certain partnerships.

 

Kathryn, this is played by a number of partnerships in my area.

1M 2NT = invit, or 16-17 flat raise or 14-17 spl

1M 3NT = 12-15 flat raise

1M double jump = 10-13 or 18+ spl

 

After 1M 2NT

opener signs off with a min, makes a long suit trial, (or s suit trial if you refer), bids 4M t/p 3NT with 18-19 flat, or makes a general enquiry with 3C - which can also be a long suit trial:

resp bids 3/4 M with limit -4 over a lst acceptance, NTs with the bal raise or jumps with the splinter

Thanks. What is t/p? "bids 4M t/p 3NT with 18-19 flat"

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Where can I find the full follow ups to Inv+ J2N? I've found this so far.. http://www.kolumbus.fi/memmu1/piv/bridge/fem.pdf

 

Around here most the most common followups are that 3C is any minimum, 3D is extras without shortness, and 3H/3S/3NT show C/D/other major shortness. 4-bids are as in traditional Jacoby 2NT. Over the 3C minimum response 3D asks for shortness (with the same H/S/NT answers) and 3M shows that you had just the limit raise.

 

So the only non-GF auction is 1M - 2NT - 3C - 3M.

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Ok, I will just put here what I play:

 

1m-2M= WJS. I also have no problem with IJS, but my weak is defined such that 1m-1M-2m-2M is the equivalent of an IJS.

1H-2s, 1S-3H = 3 card limit raise. I believe that it is important to removed these hands from the forcing or semi forcing NT. Particularly at MP, and particularly if you play 1M-1N-2N= various hands GF, and 1M-1N-3m= 5-5 GF. The NT tends to be overloaded anway. Since 1h-2s offers more room to opener, it can be slightly less well defined and you can make game tries over it.

 

I also play simple raises so that 1M-2M= typicall 4-8 ish with 3 card support, but also most balanced hands in that range with 4 card support. This means there are no major raises in the semi-forcing NT.

1M-3m, = invititional with a decent 6 card suit with no better than Jx support for openers major.

 

the 1s-3h IJS now goes through the forcing NT.

 

1M-3M= mixed raise, aboud 4-8 with 4 card support in an unblanced hand. May be say 4432 at white vs red, but will contain a singleton 70+% of the time, or 5422.

 

1M-2N= invitational+ jacoby, response structure below.

 

1h-3s, 1s-3N = void splinter in any suit, next suit asks.

1M-4m, 1s-4h = normal splinter 10-14 range.

 

1m-3M, 1m-4M, 1h-4S, are all to play as pre-emptive bids.

 

Jacoby response structure:

 

3C=any min.

3D= non min no shortage

3h/s/N = shortage, non min, in c/d/OM respectively.

4 level=5-5 non min.

 

After 3c min:

3d=shortage ask, with 3h/s/NT = shortage in steps, and the 4 level showing a min 5-5.

3h/s/NT = responder showing a shortage and asking opener to evaluate his minimum.

4c/d= cue bids.

 

After a 3D response, 3h/s/3N show shortage in openers hand, and ask opener to evaluate his hand.

 

QUite useful meta agreement is that after any shortage bid the first bid after that shows a hand that maybe has some wastage but still some useful cards. Better thana sign off but not good enough to cuebid. This extra definition is often more helpful than an extra cuebid. It is also very helpful when opener shows a "non min" shortage, as responder is quite ill defined. Here it will include most hands with 9-12 working points. A cue bid will include more. I do not play this when opener has already shown a min and then is asked for his shortage.

 

Note that 3C should be "minimum for slam", there is no inherent contradiction in showing a minimum and then raising partners sign off to game. In fact that is quite common with say 5431 13/14 counts. Or Maximal weak NT's.

 

An example auction:

 

1S-2N

3c-3h

3s-3N

4d-4H

4S

So opener is now, a minimum, with some but not a lot of wastage opposite a club shortage, and 4d=4h-cue bids, and the final decision is left to opener again.

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