gnasher Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sj642hj852dat2cjt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1hp1sp2sp3hp]133|200[/hv] Matchpoints. 1♠ was a one-round force, and promised five clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 I wouldn't. We have bad trumps and bad hearts. The auction suggests a trump lead, which might be bad for us in game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
semeai Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 I pass bid 3S (thanks jjbrr). Partner is likely 4-3-1-5. Easiest to think in terms of LTC here. Just about any hand with a LTC of 4 except KQxx KQx x KQxxx (good, of course) would just bid game. Most hands with a LTC of 5 are unlikely to be better than 50%, even if one of the losers is in AKxxx of clubs. Either major opposite a single K or Q may also do poorly unless partner has some 10's. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 If you think partner is likely 4315, why wouldn't you correct to 3S? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jogs Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 Matchpoints. 1♠ was a one-round force, and promised five clubs. Why does it promise five clubs?4=2=3=4 What do you rebid with that pattern? 3♠. If partner can make game opposite this hand,he should have just bid game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 Why does it promise five clubs?4=2=3=4 What do you rebid with that pattern? It's pretty normal to bid 1NT with balanced hands, especially when you play conventions to uncover 4-4 ♠ first after 1m-1♥-1NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
semeai Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 If you think partner is likely 4315, why wouldn't you correct to 3S? Indeed, I meant 3♠, decline invite, do not bid game, but said pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sj642hj852dat2cjt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1hp1sp2sp3hp]133|200|gnasher wroteMatchpoints. 1♠ was a one-round force, and promised five clubs. IMO 4♠ = 10, 4♦ = 9, 3♠ = 7.Partner will have at least ♠ AT9x ♥ KQx ♦ x ♣ A9xxx. Even at MP, 3♠ is a narrow target. [/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sj642hj852dat2cjt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1hp1sp2sp3hp]133|300|gnasher wroteMatchpoints. 1♠ was a one-round force, and promised five clubs. IMO 4♠ = 10, 4♦ = 9, Pass = 7.Partner will have at least ♠ AT9x ♥ KQx ♦ x ♣ A9xxx. Even at MP, 3♠ is a narrow target. [/hv] 3♠ would be a narrow target if you bid it with the goal of making exactly 9 tricks. However, if you decide that the hand is not likely to make 10 tricks, being in 3♠ is better than being in 4♠ at any form of scoring. Whether the hand makes 9, 8 or 7 tricks, it is better to be in 3♠ than in 4♠. I would not bid game on these cards. I assume that the grade assigned to pass was meant to be the grade assigned to 3♠. As for 4♦, that is a totally irrational call. Are you making a slam try? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 3♠ would be a narrow target if you bid it with the goal of making exactly 9 tricks. However, if you decide that the hand is not likely to make 10 tricks, being in 3♠ is better than being in 4♠ at any form of scoring. Whether the hand makes 9, 8 or 7 tricks, it is better to be in 3♠ than in 4♠. I would not bid game on these cards. I assume that the grade assigned to pass was meant to be the grade assigned to 3♠. As for 4♦, that is a totally irrational call. Are you making a slam try? ArtK78 may be right about 3♠ being quite high enough. It's a matter of judgement.ArtK78 is also right, 3♠ = 7 was intended, Not Pass = 7. Corrected above.The narrow target argument: If opener's try is pushy, most of the field may stop in 2♠. That may be the likely limit of the hand and 3♠ may already be too high. Both 3♠-1 and 4♠-2 will be below average compared with 2♠=. If 4♠ is a lucky make, however, then 4♠= will be above average, while 3♠+1 will score the same as 2♠+2.The rationale for considering 4♦ is that opener is unlimited. His interest may be in slam as well as game. He may hold say...♠ AKQx ♥ x ♦ xx ♣ AKQxxx. When you accept his try, he may expect you to cue-bid if possible. ArtK78 is right again -- it is probably folly to encourage him. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 3S for me Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 Unless there is someone watching me that i want to impress by bidding game and show how brave and different than others i am, i will settle with 3♠. :P Depends on style but my 2♠ was a stretch for me anyway. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 I'd bid 3♠, there seems like too much work to do in 4♠, not to mention we may be ruffing with very high trumps in dummy. Something as little as the ♠T may convince me to do otherwise. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
matmat Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 at imps i probably just punt 4♠. at MP i'll take my chances at 3 and expect a decent board since p is an exquisite declarer. If we play invitational hesitations, now is the time to employ them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted June 24, 2011 Author Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 Why does it promise five clubs?4=2=3=4 What do you rebid with that pattern?We were playing 4-card majors, so would have opened 1♠. Even playing 5-card majors, I usually play that the 1♠ rebid promises five clubs. That ocasionally loses a 4-4 spade fit, but I think that the gains from having better defined rebids make it worthwhile. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 If a 4315 is a certainty, our hand is golden and I'd bid 4♠ thus. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 Even playing 5-card majors, I usually play that the 1♠ rebid promises five clubs. That ocasionally loses a 4-4 spade fit, but I think that the gains from having better defined rebids make it worthwhile. Its a matter of taste i guess. I play this 1♠ promissing only 3 cards ♣. If we are going to slam or if my shape is relevant to pd to determine which game to play, we have tools for it but i can see showing it at 1st round wld have advantages. But if it is irrelevant and we are going to play 4♠ or 3 NT regardless, i gain a lot in long run by not drawing the map of my hand for defense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 Partner will have at least ♠ AT9x ♥ KQx ♦ x ♣ A9xxx. Even at MP, 3♠ is a narrow target. If partner has that hand then I'd rather be in 3S, and also if partner has more highcards but fewer useful spots such as Axxx KQx x AQxxx. He may hold say...♠ AKQx ♥ x ♦ xx ♣ AKQxxx. Or, only slightly less likely, perhaps partner has pulled out the opening bid by accident, has decided to continu the deception, and as a baby was dropped on earth from a nearby galaxy. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 If partner has that hand then I'd rather be in 3S, and also if partner has more highcards but fewer useful spots such as Axxx KQx x AQxxx. To some extent it's a matter of partnership-style but, not vulnerable at pairs, partner is normally reluctant to try for game over a two-level raise, without reasonable aspirations. Or, only slightly less likely, perhaps partner has pulled out the opening bid by accident, has decided to continue the deception, and as a baby was dropped on earth from a nearby galaxy. :) :) :) Andromeda Bowles. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 My hand is pretty great with nothing wasted in D, i dont see why i woulndt bid game. JT of clubs is only 1 pts but these are great cards when partner showed a 5 card suit. Also 1S is forcing so ill be forced to bid 2S with any subminimum response. I consider that if you only bid 3S there is a hole in your bridge. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszes Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sj642hj852dat2cjt&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1hp1sp2sp3hp]133|200[/hv] Matchpoints. 1♠ was a one-round force, and promised five clubs. at imps invite freely accept dearlyat MP invite dearly accept freely. when opener bids 3h they are very close to a 4sbid themselves (this is where invite dearly kicks in)but need to cater to really bad hands where you might have say KQxx of dia as most of your power. Well you have the A not the KQ and lets face it the JT of clubs opposite at least a 5 card suit are like a gold mine. You have enough stuff to make defense difficult for the opps to cash tricks before clubs can be set up. IMO thisis a clear cut bid of: 4s If p is always inviting hoping you have a max and nowasted values (in dia)at MP they are overbidding. Thatis an IMP tactic. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 ArtK78 may be right about 3♠ being quite high enough. It's a matter of judgement.ArtK78 is also right, 3♠ = 7 was intended, Not Pass = 7. Corrected above.The narrow target argument: If opener's try is pushy, most of the field may stop in 2♠. That may be the likely limit of the hand and 3♠ may already be too high. Both 3♠-1 and 4♠-2 will be below average compared with 2♠=. If 4♠ is a lucky make, however, then 4♠= will be above average, while 3♠+1 will score the same as 2♠+2.The rationale for considering 4♦ is that opener is unlimited. His interest may be in slam as well as game. He may hold say...♠ AKQx ♥ x ♦ xx ♣ AKQxxx. When you accept his try, he may expect you to cue-bid if possible. ArtK78 is right again -- it is probably folly to encourage him. I was thinking the opener was limited by an inability to JS with 2♠ over 1♥. If this is not system then I would choose 4♠ otherwise 3♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 I consider that if you only bid 3S there is a hole gap in your bridge.Seems more appropriate :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 More inclined to bid 2♠ than 4♠. Without the ♣10 this would be very clear for me, as my only sure entry will disappear at trick one and I may have to play clubs immediately. At least with ♣J10 I might retain an entry in my hand, so I feel there is some merit in bidding game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted June 24, 2011 Report Share Posted June 24, 2011 3♠. The ♦A is not that useful. I would rather put it in any of the other three suits. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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